CCNA 1 Networking Basics (Version 3.1)

CCNA 2 - Final Exam Answers

2008-04-09T08:01:00.001+07:00

1 What are some reasons to change the configuration register setting? (Choose two.)
• to force the system to ignore the configuration file stored in NVRAM
• to monitor password changes
• to change the POST sequence
• to force the router to boot the IOS from NVRAM
• to force the system into ROM monitor mode

2 Given the output shown in the exhibit, in what order and location will the router search for the IOS if no boot system commands are found in the startup-config file?
• ROM, Flash, TFTP server
• Flash, NVRAM, RAM
• ROM, TFTP server, Flash
• RAM, Flash, NVRAM
• Flash, TFTP server, ROM

3 Which statements are true regarding setup mode? (Choose three.)
• Press Ctrl-z to terminate setup mode.
• Enter a question mark (?) for help at any point.
• Press Spacebar to accept the default settings.
• Use setup mode to enter complex protocol features.
• Press Enter to accept the default settings.
• Press Ctrl-c to abort configuration dialog.

4 What are two possible reasons for this result? (Choose two.)
• The startup-config file was not saved to RAM before reboot.
• The IOS has been erased.
• The router has not been configured.
• The startup-config file cannot be located.
• The router will not enter initial configuration dialog.

5 A new technician must add boot system commands to one of the department routers. Which available commands will the router return as output when the command shown below is entered? (Choose two.)

Router(config)# boot system ?

• RAM
• NVRAM
• IOS
• IP Address
• TFTP
• FLASH

6 Router A and Router B have been correctly configured to use RIP as a dynamic routing protocol and all intefaces on Router A and Router B are reporting "interface is up, line protocol is up" status. RIP is then configured on Router C using the following commands:
RouterC(config)# router rip
RouterC(config-router)# network 192.168.4.0
RouterC(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0
If no additional routing is configured on Router A, Router B, and Router C, what will be the result?

• Networks 192.168.12.0/24, 192.168.4.0/24, and 172.16.0.0/16 will be unreachable from Router A.
• Router A will have no knowledge of network 192.168.12.0/24, but will have routes to networks 192.168.4.0/24 and 172.16.0.0/16.
• All networks shown in the graphic will be reachable by Router A, Router B, and Router C.
• Networks 192.168.4.0/24 and 172.16.0.0/16 will be unreachable from Router A and Router B.

7 The Suffolk router is directly connected to the networks shown in the graphic and has a default route that points to the Richmond router. All interfaces are active and properly addressed. However, when the workstation on network 172.29.5.0/24 sends a packet to destination address 172.29.198.5, it is discarded by the Suffolk router. What can be a reason for this result?
• The ip classless command is not enabled on the Richmond router.
• The route was ignored if the Richmond router did not include the 172.29.198.0/24 network in its routing updates.
• The Richmond router is in a different autonomous system than the Suffolk router.
• The ip subnet-zero command was not configured on the Suffolk router.
• The ip classless command is not enabled on the Suffolk router.

8 A network administrator has enabled RIP on routers B and C in the network diagram. Which of the following commands will prevent RIP updates from being sent to Router A?

• A(config)# router rip
A(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0

• B(config)# router rip
B(config-router)# network 192.168.25.48
B(config-router)# network 192.168.25.64

• A(config)# router rip
A(config-router)# no network 192.168.25.32

• B(config)# router rip
B(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0

• A(config)# no router rip

9 Which router component stores the information that is displayed by the show running-config command?
• flash
• NVRAM
• RAM
• ROM

10 If a PC does not have network connectivity to a router, which router port can be used to establish communication?
• console
• Ethernet
• serial
• VTY

11 What information can be learned during the initial router bootup? (Choose two.)
• the configuration register value
• the number and types of interfaces installed
• the router model and the amount of memory that is available
• the amount of memory required to load the IOS and configuration
• the number of interfaces with connected cables

12 Which devices can be used to convert the data from a WAN router at the customer site into a form acceptable for use by the WAN service provider? (Choose three.)
• Ethernet switch
• DTE
• modem
• hub
• DCE device
• CSU/DSU

13 What are the primary functions of a router? (Choose two.)
• determine the best path for packets
• prevent collisions on the network LAN
• regulate flow control between sender and receiver
• provide domain name resolution
• forward packets to the appropriate interface

14 Which of the following are correct statements verified by the router output shown in the graphic? (Choose two.)
• Layer 3 connectivity exists between BigCity and the devices in the Device ID column.
• Layer 2 connectivity exists between BigCity and the devices in the Device ID column.
• All devices shown in the Device ID column use the TCP/IP protocol suite.
• All devices shown in the Device ID column can be pinged from BigCity.
• All devices listed in the Device ID column are directly connected to BigCity.

15 What are the results of setting the boot field bits in the configuration register to "0000"? (Choose two.)
• The startup-config file will be ignored at bootup.
• The router will load the IOS from Flash.
• The router will enter ROM monitor mode upon reload.
• The router will enter boot ROM mode and have limited capabilities.
• The administrator can enter the b command to manually boot the IOS.

16 What can a network administrator do to recover from a lost router password?
• perform a reload or reset
• telnet from another router and issue the show running-config command to view the password
• boot the router to ROM monitor mode and configure the router to ignore NVRAM when it initializes
• boot the router to bootROM mode and enter the b command to load the IOS manually

17 Which router components and operations are correctly described? (Choose two.)
• RAM - stores the ARP cache
• NVRAM - store the operating system
• ROM - stores the backup IOS
• POST - verifies the validity of the running-config
• Flash - executes diagnostics at bootup
• DRAM - loads the bootstrap

18 Which of the following commands will correctly configure an extended ACL? (Choose two).
• Router(config)# access-list 18 permit tcp host 192.168.73.3 eq 25
• Router(config)# access-list 102 permit tcp 10.43.0.0 0.0.255.255 any eq 80
• Router(config)# access-list 187 permit tcp host 192.168.42.34 172.29.0.0 0.0.255.255 eq 23
• Router(config)# access-list 99 permit host 10.217.32.3
• Router(config)# access-list 128 permit tcp host 192.168.100.31 eq 23

19 The following access list has been created to prevent traffic from the 192.0.2.63 host on the Sales LAN from accessing servers and hosts on the Payroll LAN.
access-list 26 deny host 192.0.2.63
access-list 26 permit any
Refer to the exhibit. Which group of commands will properly place the access list so that only the host on the Sales LAN is denied access to the 172.29.7.0 network but all other traffic is permitted?

• Payroll(config)# interface fa0/0
Payroll(config-if)# ip access-group 26 out

• Payroll(config)# interface fa0/1
Payroll(config-if)# ip access-group 26 out

• Sales(config)# interface fa0/1
Sales(config-if)# ip access-group 26 in

• Sales(config)# interface fa0/0
Sales(config-if)# ip access-group 26 out

20 Refer to the graphic. Communication is needed between the LAN connected to the fa0/0 interface of the Kansas router and the fa0/0 interface of the Maine router. All hosts on those LANs also need connectivity to the Internet. Which commands will allow this communication? (Choose three).
• Kansas(config)# ip route 192.168.6.0 255.255.255.0 172.18.64.2
• Kansas(config)# ip route 192.168.6.0 255.255.255.0 s0/1
• Kansas(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/1
• Maine(config)# ip route 192.168.6.0 255.255.255.0 172.18.64.1
• Maine(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/1
• Maine(config)# ip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.255.0 172.18.64.2

21 A network administrator must configure a FastEthernet interface with an IP address. The configuration must also identify the remote site to which the interface is connected. Which set of commands will meet these requirements?

• StPetersburg(config)# banner San Jose T1
StPetersburg(config)# interface fa0/0
StPetersburg(config-if)# ip address 172.26.155.5 255.255.255.252

• StPetersburg(config)# interface fa0/0
StPetersburg(config-if)# ip address 172.26.155.5 netmask 255.255.255.252
StPetersburg(config-if)# description San Jose T1

• StPetersburg(config)# interface fa0/0
StPetersburg(config-if)# ip address 172.26.155.5 255.255.255.252
StPetersburg(config-if)# banner remote site San Jose T1

• StPetersburg(config)# interface fa0/0
StPetersburg(config-if)# ip address 172.26.155.5 255.255.255.252
StPetersburg(config-if)# description San Jose T1

22 A network administrator issues the erase startup-config command on a configured router with the configuration register set to 0x2102 and observes the following output:
Erasing the nvram filesystem will remove all files! Continue? [Confirm]
[OK]
Erase of nvram: complete
If the router unexpectedly loses power after this sequence, what will occur when power is restored?
• The router will enter ROM monitor mode upon completion of the power-on self test (POST).
• The router will load the last known valid configuration file.
• The router will enter Rx-boot mode.
• The router will prompt the user to enter setup mode or to continue without entering setup mode.

23 The main router of XYZ company has enough flash and RAM to store multiple IOS images. An administrator wants to upload a second IOS image from a TFTP server to the flash of the router. Which method will accomplish this task?
• Paste the IOS filename to the command line of the router while in global configuration mode. Press enter. Then issue the copy tftp flash command.
• Use the setup utility to load the new image to flash.
• Copy the IOS image file from a TFTP server using the command copy filename ip address flash .
• Copy the IOS image file from a TFTP server using the command copy tftp flash. When prompted, provide the IP address or name of the TFTP server and the IOS image filename.

24 What facts can be determined from the highlighted text shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
• A weak encryption was applied to all unencrypted passwords.
• The enable password is now more secure than the enable secret password.
• An MD5 hashing algorithm was used on all encrypted passwords.
• Any configured user EXEC mode or Telnet passwords will be encrypted in this configuration.
• The service password-encryption command was used to encrypt all passwords on the router including enable secret.

25 What are the features of a serial interface on a router? (Choose two.)
• enabled by default
• assigned a unique MAC address
• must be configured as a DCE in lab and production environments
• must be configured with the default clock rate of 56000
• may be administratively enabled by using the no shutdown command
• must be configured with a valid IP address and subnet mask in order to forward packets

26 What are two recommended uses of login banners? (Choose two.)
• to display security warning messages
• to welcome any user to the router
• to warn people about misusing privileged EXEC mode
• to identify circuits and other devices connected to the router
• to announce a scheduled system shutdown

27 While planning an IOS upgrade, the administrator issues the show version command. Based on the output in the graphic, what is the current IOS boot location?
• RAM
• NVRAM
• Flash
• ROM

28 Why are interface descriptions used in router configurations? (Choose three).
• to enable support personnel to easily identify networks and customers that may be affected by a possible interface issue
• to provide comments on the interface without affecting the router functionality
• to display access warning messages before users enter the interface configuration mode
• to eliminate the need to use IP addresses when using the ping and telnet commands
• to identify the purpose and location of the interface

29 What are two characteristics of the support for Telnet within Cisco IOS software? (Choose two.)
• Up to five separate Telnet lines are supported by default in standard edition IOS files.
• For security purposes, Telnet sessions are required to be established from the privileged mode.
• A router can host simultaneous Telnet sessions.
• Once established, a Telnet session can remain operational regardless of network status.
• Telnet tests wireless connectivity and does not require a physical connection between devices to gain remote access.

30 Neither router in the exhibit has a host table or DNS available. The interfaces and passwords have been correctly configured. Which of the following commands will initiate a Telnet session? (Choose two.)
• Tottenham# telnet Oxford
• Tottenham> telnet 198.18.139.1
• Oxford# connect 198.18.139.0
• Oxford> connect Tottenham
• Oxford# telnet Tottenham
• Oxford# 198.18.139.2

31 From the running-config, the following configuration entries are displayed:
Router(config)# line vty 0 2
Router(config-line)# password g8k33pr
Router(config-line)# login
What can be interpreted from the exhibited configuration? (Choose two.)

• Three Telnet lines are available for remote access.
• Two Telnet lines are available for remote access.
• Future configuration of the remaining Telnet lines will require the password to be set to g8k33pr.
• To login to the remote device, g8k33pr will be used as the Telnet and secret password.
• Remote access to this local router will require a Telnet password of g8k33pr.

32 Assuming the following ACL is correctly applied to a router interface, what can be concluded about this set of commands? (Choose two.)
Router(config)# access-list 165 deny tcp 192.28.115.0 0.0.0.255 172.20.0.0 0.0.255.255 eq 23
Router(config)# access-list 165 permit ip any any

• This is a standard IP access list that denies network 192.28.115.0 Telnet access to the 172.20.0.0 network.
• All Telnet traffic destined for 172.20.0.0 from any network will be denied access.
• Network 192.28.115.0 is denied Telnet access to the 172.20.0.0 network.
• Network 172.20.0.0 is denied Telnet access to the 192.28.115.0 network.
• All FTP and HTTP traffic destined for 172.20.0.0 will be permitted access.

33 What can be concluded from the output shown in the exhibit? (Choose three.)
• This is a standard IP access list.
• This is an extended IP access list.
• The keyword host is implied in the command line access-list 99 deny 10.213.177.76.
• The wildcard mask must be configured for this access list to function properly.
• Host 10.213.177.100 will be allowed access to the Serial0/1 interface.

34 access-list 199 deny tcp 178.15.0.0 0.0.255.255 any eq 23
access-list 199 permit ip any any
Assuming this ACL is correctly applied to a router interface, which statements describe traffic on the network? (Choose two.)
• All FTP traffic from network 178.15.0.0 will be permitted.
• All Telnet traffic destined for network 178.15.0.0 will be denied.
• Telnet and FTP will be permitted from all hosts on network 178.15.0.0 to any destination.
• Telnet will not be permitted from any hosts on network 178.15.0.0 to any destination.
• Telnet will not be permitted to any host on network 178.15.0.0 from any destination.

35 Hosts from the Limerick LAN are not allowed access to the Shannon LAN but should be able to access the Internet. Which set of commands will create a standard ACL that will apply to traffic on the Shannon router interface Fa0/0 implementing this security?

• access-list 42 deny 172.19.123.0 0.0.0.255 192.0.2.0 0.0.0.255
access-list 42 permit any

• access-list 56 deny 172.19.123.0 0.0.0.255
access-list 56 permit any

• access-list 61 deny 172.19.123.0 0.0.0.0
access-list 61 permit any

• access-list 87 deny ip any 192.0.2.0 0.0.0.255
access-list 87 permit ip any

36 Refer to the exhibit. Router D interface S0 on has gone down. What is the maximum time that will elapse before Router A learns that network 168.58.14.0 is down?
• 5 seconds
• 13 seconds
• 17 seconds
• 25 seconds
• 30 seconds
• 77 seconds

37 Refer to the graphic. Which series of commands will create static routes that will allow Router A and Router B to deliver packets destined for LAN A and LAN B, and direct all other traffic to the Internet?

• RouterA(config)# ip route 10.90.3.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.3.2
RouterB(config)# ip route 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.3.1
RouterB(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0

• RouterA(config)# ip route 10.90.3.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.3.2
RouterA(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.3.2
RouterB(config)# ip route 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.3.1

• RouterA(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.3.2
RouterB(config)# ip route 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.3.1
RouterB(config)# ip route 172.20.20.4 255.255.255.252 s0/

• RouterA(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.3.2
RouterB(config)# ip route 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.3.1
RouterB(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0

38 Refer to the exhibit. The new security policy for the company allows all IP traffic from the Engineering LAN to the Internet while only web traffic from the Marketing LAN is allowed to the Internet. Which ACL can be applied in the outbound direction of Serial 0/1 on the Marketing router to implement the new security policy?

• access-list 197 permit ip 192.0.2.0 0.0.0.255 any
access-list 197 permit ip 198.18.112.0 0.0.0.255 any eq www

• access-list 165 permit ip 192.0.2.0 0.0.0.255 any
access-list 165 permit tcp 198.18.112.0 0.0.0.255 any eq www
access-list 165 permit ip any any

• access-list 137 permit ip 192.0.2.0 0.0.0.255 any
access-list 137 permit tcp 198.18.112.0 0.0.0.255 any eq www

• access-list 89 permit 192.0.2.0 0.0.0.255 any
access-list 89 permit tcp 198.18.112.0 0.0.0.255 any eq www

39 What will occur when the following ACL is applied inbound to both FastEthernet interfaces of Router A in the graphic?
access-list 125 permit tcp 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 10.90.3.0 0.0.0.255 eq 23
access-list 125 permit tcp 10.90.3.0 0.0.0.255 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 eq 23
access-list 125 permit tcp 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 any eq www

• Workstations A and B will be able to Telnet to each other. Workstation A will be allowed to access Web servers on the Internet, while Workstation B will be denied Internet Web access.
• Workstations A and B will be able to Telnet to each other. All other traffic will be denied.
• The ACL will have no effect because it should be applied in the outbound direction on the FastEthernet interfaces.
• The ACL will deny all traffic because of the implied deny ip any any statement at the end of the ACL.

40 What are two possible reasons a router would not load a valid IOS from flash? (Choose two.)
• The configuration register is set to 0x2142.
• The first boot system command executed in the startup configuration file is boot system rom.
• The configuration register is set to 0x2100.
• The boot field is set to the hexadecimal number 2.
• The startup configuration file is missing or corrupt.

41 A network administrator has a console connection to the Fremantle router. Pings to Melville are successful, but pings to Cottesloe and Nedlands fail. What could be a first step in troubleshooting the problem?
• Use an extended ping from Fremantle to each router in the network.
• Use the show interfaces command from a Telnet session on Melville to check the connection to Cottesloe.
• Use the traceroute command to discover exactly which link in the network is down.
• Use the show cdp neighbors detail command from Fremantle to gather information about all Cisco routers in the network.

42 What are three features of CDP? (Choose three.)
• provides information on directly connected devices that have CDP enabled
• tests Layer 2 connectivity
• enabled by default on each interface
• provides a layer of security
• used for debugging Layer 4 connectivity issues

43 Which two steps describe how to create a functional physical connection between a router console and a terminal? (Choose two.)
• Use a crossover cable to connect the terminal serial port to the router console port.
• Use a rollover cable to connect the terminal NIC to the router console port.
• Use an RJ-45 to DB-9 adapter on the terminal serial port to connect to the cable going to the router console.
• Use a transceiver to connect a straight-through cable to the router console port.
• Use a straight-through cable to connect the router console port to the terminal NIC.
• Use a rollover cable to connect from a terminal serial port to the router console port.

44 Refer to the exhibit. Assuming default metrics are used and the network is fully converged, which path will RIP use to send a packet from Router A to Router F?
• A, D, E, F
• A, B, D, E, F
• A, C, D, E, G, F
• A, B, D, E, G, F

45 Based on this partial output of the show ip route command, which routing protocol is configured on the router?
I 172.16.3.0/24 [100/80135] via 172.16.2.2, 00:00:27, Serial0/0
• RIP v1
• RIP v2
• IGRP
• EIGRP
• OSPF
• IGP

46 Why are routed protocols important to networking? (Choose two.)
• Routed protocols detect collisions and fragments.
• Routers use routed protocols to calculate the best path to a destination.
• Routed protocols transport data across the network.
• The fields and formats used within a packet are defined by routed protocols.
• Routed protocols are used to configure the metrics used by routing protocols.

47 What could a Cisco support technician learn from the IOS filename c2600-d-mz.121-3? (Choose three.)
• the format of the file
• the RAM memory requirements of the file
• the version number of the file
• the size of the file
• the device platform of the file

48 What critical information about the status of the router can be found in the outputs of both the show interfaces and show protocols commands? (Choose two.)
• the Layer 3 address of each configured interface
• the routing protocol configured to forward updates out of each interface
• the operational status of each interface
• traffic statistics for each interface
• whether the interface is configured as a DTE or DCE

49 Which of the following are true statements regarding IGRP and RIP? (Choose two.)
• IGRP uses a combination of different metrics for path selection.
• RIP is a proprietary protocol developed by Cisco.
• RIP has the ability to scale to large networks.
• IGRP has the ability to scale to large networks.

CCNA 2 - Module 11 Exam Answers

2008-04-09T08:00:00.000+07:00

1 Which statements are true regarding the significance of the access control list wildcard mask 0.0.0.7? (Choose two.)
• The first 29 bits of a given IP address will be ignored.
• The last 3 bits of a given IP address will be ignored.
• The first 32 bits of a given IP address will be checked.
• The first 29 bits of a given IP address will be checked.
• The last 3 bits of a given IP address will be checked.

2 Which of the following parameters can ACLs use to filter traffic? (Choose three.)
• packet size
• protocol suite
• source address
• destination address
• source router interface
• destination router interface

3 Choose the commands that will correctly configure a standard ACL. (Choose two.)
• Router(config)# access-list 97 permit host 192.5.5.1
• Router(config)# access-list 32 permit 210.93.105.3 0.0.0.0
• Router(config)# access-list 148 permit 201.100.11.2 0.0.0.0
• Router(config)# access-list 107 permit host 192.5.5.1 213.45.27.0 0.0.0.255 eq 23
• Router(config)# access-list 10 permit tcp 192.5.5.1 0.0.0.255 201.100.11.0 0.0.0.255 eq 80

4 Select the statements that describe ACL processing of packets. (Choose three.)
• An implicit deny any rejects any packet that does not match any ACL statement.
• A packet can either be rejected or forwarded as directed by the statement that is matched.
• A packet that has been denied by one statement can be permitted by a subsequent statement.
• A packet that does not match the conditions of any ACL statements will be forwarded by default.
• Each statement is checked only until a match is detected or until the end of the ACL statement list.
• Each packet is compared to the conditions of every statement in the ACL before a forwarding decision is made.

5 Which of the following are reasons to use ACLs? (Choose three.)
• to provide a basic level of security for network access
• to speed up network performance by filtering priority packets
• to preserve bandwidth by providing a mechanism for traffic flow control
• to decide which packets are forwarded or blocked at the router console port
• to screen certain hosts to either allow or deny access to part of a network
• to allow all packets passing through the router access to all parts of the network

6

Assuming the ACL in the graphic is correctly applied to an interface, what effect will the ACL have on network traffic?
• All traffic to network 172.16.0.0 will be denied.
• All TCP traffic will be permitted to and from network 172.16.0.0.
• All telnet traffic from the 172.16.0.0 network to any destination will be denied.
• All port 23 traffic to the 172.16.0.0 network will be denied.
• All traffic from the 172.16.0.0 network will be denied to any other network.

7 Choose the command that will correctly configure a standard ACL.
• Router# access-list 10 permit any
• Router# access-list 101 permit any
• Router(config)# access-list 10 permit any
• Router(config)# access-list 101 permit any
• Router(config)# access-list 10 permit any any

8

Select the commands that will apply the ACL in the diagram to filter traffic going to the 192.168.2.0 network.

• Router1# configure terminal
Router1(config)# access-list 10 in E0

• outer1(config)# interface ethernet 0
Router1(config-if)# access-list 10 in

• Router2(config)# interface s1
Router2(config-if)# ip access-group 10 out

• Router2(config)# interface ethernet 0
Router2(config-if)# ip access-group 10 out

• Router1(config)# interface ethernet 0
Router1(config-if)# ip access-group 10 out

• Router2# configure terminal
Router2(config)# access-group 10 out

9

Assuming the ACL in the graphic is correctly applied to an interface, what effect will this ACL have on network traffic?
• Host 192.168.15.4 will be denied ftp access to any destination, but will be permitted all other access.
• All ftp traffic to host 192.168.15.4 will be denied.
• All traffic from that interface will be denied.
• No traffic will be denied because a "permit" statement does not exist in this ACL.

10

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has connectivity to the routers and networks in the diagram. An ACL has been created to allow the network administrator FTP access to the webserver. This ACL must also deny FTP access to the server from the rest of the hosts on the LAN. Which interface in the exhibit is the recommended location to apply the ACL?
• FastEthernet 0/0 on the Carlisle router
• Serial 0/0 on the Carlisle router
• Serial 0/1 on the Mt. Holly router
• FastEthernet 0/0 on the Mt. Holly router

11 Select the correct statements about extended ACLs. (Choose two)
• Extended ACLs use a number range from 1-99.
• Extended ACLs end with an implicit permit statement.
• Extended ACLs evaluate the source and destination addresses.
• Port numbers can be used to add greater definition to an ACL.
• Multiple ACLs can be placed on the same interface as long as they are in the same direction.

12 The following commands were entered on a router:

Router(config)# access-list 2 deny 172.16.5.24
Router(config)# access-list 2 permit any

What can be concluded about this set of commands?
• The access list statements are misconfigured.
• All nodes on 172.16.0.0 will be denied access when these statements are applied.
• The default wildcard mask, 0.0.0.0 is assumed.
• The default wildcard mask 255.255.255.255 is assumed.

13 Where should a standard access control list be placed?
• close to the source
• close to the destination
• on an Ethernet port
• on a serial port

14 A router that has two Ethernet interfaces and one serial interface is configured to route both IP and IPX. What is the maximum number of IP ACLs that can be configured to filter packets on this router?
• 1
• 2
• 3
• 6
• 12
15 Which statement is true regarding wildcard masks?
• The wildcard mask and subnet mask perform the same function.
• The wildcard mask is always the inverse of the subnet mask.
• A "0" in the wildcard mask identifies IP address bits that must be checked.
• A "1" in the wildcard mask identifies a network or subnet bit.

16 ACL statements operate in sequential, logical order. If a condition match is true, the rest of the ACL statements are not checked. If all of the ACL statements are unmatched, what happens to the packet?
• The packets will be placed in a buffer and forwarded when the ACL is removed.
• The packets will be sent to the source with an error notification message.
• The implicit permit any statement placed at the end of the list will allow the packets to flow through uninhibited.
• The implicit deny any statement placed at the end of the list will cause the packets to be dropped.

17 Which of the following matches an ACL identification number with the correct protocol?(Choose three.)
• 0 - standard IP
• 99 - standard IP
• 100 - extended IP
• 210 - extended IP
• 678 - extended IPX
• 888 - standard IPX

18 The router IOS tests each condition statement in an ACL in sequence. Once a match is made, which of the following occurs? (Choose two.)
• The entire ACL must be deleted and recreated.
• The accept or reject action is performed.
• The packet is forwarded to the next hop.
• The remaining ACL statements are not checked.
• The router goes through the list again to verify that a match has been made.

19

Create a standard ACL that will deny traffic from 192.5.5.25 to the 210.93.105.0 network but will allow traffic from all other hosts. (Choose two.)

• Router(config)# access-list 22 deny 192.5.5.25 0.0.0.0

• Router(config)# access-list 22 deny host 192.5.5.25 0.0.0.0
Router(config)# access-list 22 permit any any

• Router(config)# access-list 22 deny 192.5.5.25 0.0.0.0
Router(config)# access-list 22 permit any

• Router(config)# access-list 22 deny host 192.5.5.25
Router(config)# access-list 22 permit any

• Router(config)# access-list 22 deny 192.5.5.0 0.0.0.255
Router(config)# access-list 22 permit any

CCNA 2 - Module 10 Exam Answers

2008-04-09T07:59:00.006+07:00

1 Which of the following describe how TCP adds reliability to communication? (Choose three.)
• Hosts using TCP set up virtual circuits at the beginning of the transmission using the three-way handshake.
• Hosts using TCP set the error-checking frequency at the beginning of the transmission and maintain this frequency for the duration of the data transfer.
• When a sending host does not receive an acknowledgment within a timed interval it retransmits data.
• The receiving host acknowledges that it has received the expected number of segments and requests additional data.
• The receiving host acknowledges any incorrectly received data and requests retransmission of damaged or missing bytes.
• The sending host transmits each segment twice to ensure that data is not lost.

2 A computer programmer is developing software that requires a reliable stream of data. Which protocol can be used in the software design to eliminate the need for building error detection and recovery into the application program?
• TCP
• IP
• ICMP
• UDP
• HTTP

3 Why is TCP considered a connection-oriented protocol?
• It establishes a virtual connection between hosts using a two-way handshake.
• It uses IP to guarantee delivery of packets between hosts.
• It requires hosts to go through a synchronization process prior to data transmission.
• It creates a connection that depends on application layer protocols for error detection.

4 At which point in the transmission process are segments numbered?
• when received
• when reassembling
• before transmission
• while negotiating window size

5 What is dynamically assigned by the source host when forwarding data?
• destination IP address
• destination port number
• default gateway address
• source IP address
• source port number

6 How are originating source port numbers assigned during the data encapsulation process?
• assigned manually by the user when starting the application
• assigned dynamically by the source host
• assigned by the routing protocol during the lookup process
• assigned by the destination host during session negotiation

7 Which of the following would an administrator do to defend against a denial of service SYN flooding attack? (Choose two.)
• Hide the source of incoming IP addresses.
• Decrease the connection timeout period.
• Synchronize all host communication.
• Increase the connection queue size.
• Flood the network with false SYN requests.

8 When a host receives a data segment, what allows the host to determine which application should receive the segment?
• IP source address
• IP destination address
• PAR
• sliding window
• port number
• SYN packet

9 What is used by UDP to determine if the data or header has been transferred without corruption?
• lower layer protocols
• checksum
• PAR
• sliding window
• acknowledgment and retransmission
• IP

10 What is the purpose of using port numbers in the transport layer?
• to identify the segment as being either TCP or UDP
• to provide reliability during data transport
• to identify the interface port number used by the router when forwarding data
• to track multiple conversations that occur between hosts

11 In the TCP header, which of the following determines the amount of data that can be sent before receiving an acknowledgment?
• segment number
• priority number
• window size
• value in the length field
• value in the port field
• acknowledgment number

12 What does TCP use to ensure reliable delivery of data segments?
• upper layer protocols
• lower layer protocols
• sequence numbers
• port numbers

13 Which of the following protocols uses UDP for transport layer services?
• SMTP
• HTTP
• DNS
• FTP

14 What type of segment and data is shown in the graphic?
• a UDP segment carrying e-mail traffic
• a TCP segment carrying FTP traffic
• an IP segment carrying FTP traffic
• a UDP segment carrying web traffic
• a TCP segment carrying web traffic
• an IP segment carrying e-mail traffic

15 What is the purpose of Positive Acknowledgment and Retransmission (PAR)?
• PAR allows the presentation layer to request that data be resent in a format the destination host can process.
• PAR provides a mechanism for the receiving device to request that all segments be retransmitted if one segment is corrupt.
• PAR helps ensure that a number of data segments sent by one host are received by another host before additional data segments are sent.
• PAR is used to renegotiate the window size during the synchronization process.

16 Which of the following are functions of the TCP protocol? (Choose three.)
• translation of data
• synchronization
• path determination
• flow control
• data representation
• reliability

17 What is used by both TCP and UDP when creating a segment?
• IP address
• MAC address
• IPX address
• socket or port number
• acknowledgment number
• sequence number

18 Which authority has control over the assignment of port numbers for applications?
• IEEE
• IANA
• InterNIC
• Software Developers Association

19 Which of the following describe types of port numbers that can be represented in the headers of TCP and UDP segments? (Choose three.)
• connectionless
• well-known
• operational
• dynamic
• registered
• static

20 What is the purpose of the three-way handshake that occurs between hosts using TCP as the transport layer protocol?
• to increase the number of packets that can be sent before an acknowledgment is required
• to allow a host to forward data to a router
• to establish a round trip connection between sender and receiver before data is transferred
• to provide a mechanism for data encryption and compression

21 During the encapsulation process, in which order are the IP address, MAC address, and port number assigned when the router is establishing communication with the TFTP server?
• IP address, MAC address, port number
• MAC address, IP address, port number
• port number, IP address, MAC address
• port number, MAC address, IP address

22 Which of the following describes a type of denial of service attack designed to exploit the normal function of the TCP three-way handshake?
• A host sends a packet with a spoofed source IP address.
• A host sends a packet with an incorrect destination IP address.
• A source sends a packet containing a garbled header.
• A host sends an oversized packet that fills the memory buffers of the destination host.
• A host sends a packet that contains a virus.
• A host sends a packet that contains a worm.

23 Which transport layer unit of information places the port number in the header?
• data
• segment
• packet
• frame
• bit

CCNA 2 - Module 9 Exam Answers

2008-04-09T07:59:00.005+07:00

1

After issuing the command traceroute 192.168.4.2 from Router A, the following information is returned
Tracing the route to Router_D (192.168.4.2)
1 Router_B (192.168.2.2) 16 msec 16 msec 16 msec
2 * * *
3 * * *

What can be concluded about the network shown in the graphic based on the output given?
• Network 192.168.5.0 is missing from the routing table on Router
• There is a problem with the connection between Router B and Router C.
• Router C is not running CDP.
• Some of the routers are non-Cisco devices.
• Router B was not able to return ICMP TEMs to Router A

2 Which of the following would be the default administrative distance of a static IP route that references the IP address of the next hop?
• 0
• 1
• 5
• 20

3 After issuing the show interfaces command, a technician notices the line "Serial1 is down, line protocol is down" in the output. Which of the following are possible reasons for this message output? (Choose three.)
• There is a mismatch in the encapsulation type on both ends of the link.
• A Layer 1 issue exists.
• An interface problem exists.
• The clockrate was not set during configuration.
• There is no usable media for the protocol.
• Keepalive messages are not being sent.

4 Which three correctly pair a routing metric with its description? (Choose three.)
• hop count - the number of routers traversed to reach a destination
• bandwidth - the amount of time it takes a packet to travel a link
• load - the amount of activity on a link
• delay - the link speed
• reliability - the error rate on a link

5

When issuing the show interfaces serial1 command, a network administrator receives the output shown in the graphic. What are the possible causes of an increase in the number of input errors? (Choose three.)
• There could be Layer 3 addressing problems.
• There could be a problem with faulty telephone equipment.
• The router hardware could be defective.
• There is an incorrectly configured encapsulation on the interface.
• There could be a problem with the cabling.

6 Which ICMP message type notifies source hosts that a receiving host or network is not available?
• time exceeded
• redirect
• destination unreachable
• source quench
• parameter problem
• echo reply

7 The show interfaces command provides line and protocol status information. Which of the following conditions would never occur in the output of this command?
• serial1 is up, line protocol is up
• serial1 is up, line protocol is down
• serial1 is down, line protocol is down
• serial1 is down, line protocol is up
• serial1 is administratively down, line protocol is down

8

The network administrator shown in the exhibit can ping the E0 interface of the HAR router, but the telnet intranet.xyz.com command issued from the administrator's workstation fails to open a session with the intranet.xyz.com server. What are two possible causes of this problem? (Choose two.)
• upper-layer application problems
• domain name system problems
• IP addressing problems on the HAR router
• clock rate problems on the HAR router serial interface
• ICMP connectivity problems

9 The network administrator is using a PC to access a router via the router console port. Both the PC and the router are powered on and a cable has been connected between them. However, a session cannot be established. Which steps might fix this problem? (Choose two.)
• Verify the cable is properly connected at each end.
• Reseat the network card in the PC.
• Verify the cable is the correct type.
• Verify that a password has been set on the console line.
• Check the transceiver for link lights.
• Reseat the console card on the router

10 Which command will display routing table information about all known networks and subnetworks?
• Router# show ip interfaces
• Router# show ip connections
• Router# show ip route
• Router# show ip networks

11 A network technician has discovered that a router in the network can no longer be reached. The technician attempts to verify Layer 1 functionality, but is unable to physically inspect the cables. Which command can be used to determine the type of cable connected to the router?
• Router# show interfaces
• Router# show controllers serial
• Router# show ip route
• Router# show ip protocol
• Router# show version
• Router# show running-config

12 During the lookup process when forwarding a packet, a router checks its routing table for the best path to the destination. If a route has an administrative distance of 0, what does this indicate to the router?
• The packet should be discarded.
• The destination is unreachable.
• The destination is a directly connected network.
• The source of the update for that route is unreliable.

13 Which command will verify the functionality of all seven layers of the OSI model on a network host?
• ping
• debug
• telnet
• traceroute

14

After issuing the show interfaces serial1 command, an administrator notices an increasing number of carrier transitions. What are the possible causes for this increase? (Choose two.)
•There is an incorrect encapsulation configured on the interface.
•There could be an interruption in the line by the service provider.
•There is a faulty switch or CSU/DSU.
•There is noise on the serial line.

15

Consider the RIP network shown in the diagram. Which entries would be listed in the routing table of Router A?
• R 192.168.5.2[120/1] via 192.168.15.0, 00:00:09, Serial0
• R 192.168.15.0[120/1] via 192.168.5.2, 00:00:13, Serial1
• R 192.168.15.0[120/1] via 192.168.5.1, 00:00:13, Serial0
• R 192.168.5.1 [120/1] via 192.168.5.2 00:00:29, Serial1
R 192.168.15.0 [120/1] via 192.168.5.2, 00:00:29, Serial1
• R 192.168.5.1 [120/1] via 192.168.5.2 00:00:18, Serial0
R 192.168.15.2 [120/1] via 192.168.5.2, 00:00:18, Serial

16 Which items would be displayed when the show ip protocols command is executed? (Choose three.)
• sources of routing updates
• networks being advertised
• routing protocol up or down
• configured routed protocols
• Layer 2 status of the interface
• update timer values

17 Which two are true regarding the debug commands? (Choose two.)
• Debug commands may be issued from the user EXEC prompt.
• The command undebug all will turn off all debug operations.
• By default, the router sends the debug output and messages to the telnet session.
• The high processor overhead incurred using debug may disrupt normal router operation.
• The debug all command provides a summary view of router activity and can be used frequently for troubleshooting.
• The show debugging command will display current events such as traffic on an interface and error messages generated by nodes on the network.

18 A network administrator suspects that a network is not being included in the routing updates. Which command will provide information on when the next update is due and which networks are advertised in the update?
• Router# show interfaces
• Router# show controllers serial
• Router# show ip protocols
• Router# show ip route
• Router# show running-config

19 Which of the following is a problem at the physical layer of the OSI model?
• incorrect file formatting
• incorrect encapsulation on a serial interface
• incorrect routing protocol
• incorrect cable type

20

When the show cdp neighbors command is issued from Router C, which devices will be displayed in the output?
• D, SWH-2
• A, B, D
• SWH-1, SWH-2
• B, D
• SWH-1, A, B
• A, B, D, SWH-1, SWH-2

21 Which of the following are advantages of using a static route? (Choose three.)
• secure operation
• highly adaptable
• low maintenance configuration
• low processor overhead
• precise control of path selection

22 Which of the following commands can be used to statically configure default routes? (Choose two.)
• ip static-route
• ip route
• ip network-route
• ip default-network
• ip default-static

23 Why does a router build a routing table? (Choose two.)
• to list available routes for forwarding data
• to map local Layer 2 addresses to the remote Layer 3 destination address
• to dynamically send periodic updates regarding the router's status
• to prevent routing loops when redundant links are added to the network
• to select the best path to a destination

24 Which of the following lines from the show interfaces output would indicate a Layer 2 problem?
• Serial1 is up, line protocol is up.
• Serial1 is up, line protocol is down.
• Serial1 is down, line protocol is down.
• Serial1 is administratively down, line protocol is down.

CCNA 2 - Module 8 Exam Answers

2008-04-09T07:59:00.003+07:00

1 How does a source host use ICMP to confirm that a destination host is reachable?
• The source host sends an ICMP echo request to the destination router which responds with an ICMP echo reply confirming the reachability of the destination host.
• The source host sends a data packet and receives an ICMP host unreachable packet from the destination host if the data packet cannot be delivered.
• The source host sends an ICMP packet with a TTL value of 1 and receives an ICMP reply with a TTL value of 0 from the destination host.
• The source host sends an ICMP echo request and receives an ICMP echo reply from the destination host.

2 Which type of message is generated by a host when the ping command is entered?
• ICMP echo request
• ICMP echo reply
• UDP echo request
• UDP error message

3 Which of the following start the test of destination reachability?
• echo request issued by source
• echo reply issued by source
• echo request issued by destination
• echo reply issued by destination

4 Which two statements are true regarding ICMP? (Choose two.)
• ICMP provides reliability for the TCP/IP protocol stack.
• ICMP is a component of the TCP/IP protocol stack.
• ICMP notifies the sender that data transmission errors have occurred.
• ICMP is connection-oriented.
• ICMP messages are propagated to all intermediate devices.

5 How does ICMP improve data transfer reliability in IP networks?
• Each router in the path reads ICMP packets and uses the information to update routing tables.
• ICMP can correct many network problems as they occur.
• ICMP error messages are returned to the sending device when a packet is dropped by a router.
• ICMP packets report the intermediary devices that a packet passed through before failure occurred.

6 Which layer protocols provide reliability for IP when needed?
• ICMP and ping
• RIP and TTL
• upper layer protocols
• lower layer protocols
• Internet layer protocols
• network access layer protocols

7 Which devices along a data transmission path are notified by ICMP when delivery failures occur?
• source devices only
• destination devices only
• intermediary devices
• source and destination devices
• source, intermediary, and destination devices

8 When a datagram is processed by a router on the path from source to destination, what happens to the value in the TTL field?"
• It is increased by one.
• It is decreased by one.
• It stays the same.
• It is reset to 0.
• Nothing.

9 Which condition could cause a fragmentation needed ICMP destination unreachable message to be sent?
• A low bandwidth WAN link has become congested with IP traffic.
• A packet is forwarded from a Token Ring network to an Ethernet network.
• A network is not reachable because of faulty routing information.
• The address specified by the sending host is nonexistent.

10

Workstation 1 sent a data packet to Workstation 4. It never arrived because Fa0/0 interface went down on Router C. How will the devices handle this failure?
• Workstation 4 will send an error message to Router C and Workstation 1 that it did not receive the packet.
• Router C will use ICMP to send a message back to Workstation 1 indicating that the packet could not be delivered.
• Router C discards the packet without providing notification to any device.
• Router C uses ICMP to correct the failure and transmits the data to Workstation 4.
• Workstation 1 will use ICMP to correct the problem and then notify Router C to continue the transmission.

11 Which three conditions must be met in order for host to host communication over an internetwork to occur on IP networks? (Choose three.)
• The routing protocols configured on the source and destination networks must be the same.
• A default gateway must be properly configured on the hosts and local networks.
• Intermediary devices, such as routers, must be present on the network and have knowledge of how to reach the destination network.
• The source and destination host subnet masks must match.
• The IP addresses of the hosts must be in the same network or subnet as their respective gateway devices.

CCNA 2 - Module 7 Exam Answers

2008-04-09T07:59:00.001+07:00

1 Which command or set of commands will stop the RIP routing process?
• RouterB(config)# router rip
RouterB(config-router)# shutdown
• RouterB(config)# router rip
RouterB(config-router)# network no 192.168.2.0
• RouterB(config)# no router rip
• RouterB(config)# router no rip

2 When does a distance vector routing protocol set a hold-down timer on a route?
• when the metric value of the route decreases
• when the route is marked as inaccessible
• when the metric value for the route improves
• when a regular update is received from a neighboring router

3 Which of the following functions are performed by a router as routing information travels through the network? (Choose two.)
• advertise supported applications
• identify new destinations
• calculate packet speed
• verify network scalability
• identify invalid networks

4 What do distance vector algorithms require each router in the network to send?
• a partial routing table to each router in the LAN
• a partial routing table to each router in the WAN
• the entire routing table to each neighboring router
• the entire routing table to each router in the autonomous system

5

What actions will occur after RouterA loses connectivity to network 114.125.16.0? (Choose two.)
• RouterB will include network 123.92.76.0 and 136.125.85.0 in its update to RouterA.
• During the next update interval, RouterB will send a RIP update out both ports that includes the inaccessible network.
• During the next update interval, RouterC will send an update to RouterB stating that network 114.125.16.0 is accessible in 2 hops.
• Router C will learn of the loss of connectivity to network 114.125.16.0 from RouterB.
• RouterB will include network 123.92.76.0 and 136.125.85.0 in its update to RouterC.

6

Refer to the exhibit. Assuming default settings are configured, which routing protocol has been configured on the router?
• OSPF
• RIP
• EIGRP
• BGP
• Static

7 Which command will display RIP activity as it occurs on a router?
• debug ip rip
• show ip route
• show ip interface
• show ip protocols
• debug ip rip config
• show ip rip database

8 Which of the following methods does split horizon use to reduce incorrect routing information?
• Routing updates are split in half to reduce the update time.
• Information learned from one source is not distributed back to that source.
• New route information must be learned from multiple sources to be accepted.
• The time between updates is split in half to speed convergence.
• New route information is suppressed until the system has converged.

9

According to the router output from the show ip route command shown above, which of the following statements are true? (Choose two.)
• The metric to network 192.168.8.0 is 24.
• The hop count to a device on network 192.168.8.0 is 2.
• The total path cost to network 192.168.4.0 is the default value of 16.
• The logical address of the next router for network 192.168.1.0 is 192.168.3.1.
• The devices on network 192.168.5.0 cannot be reached as indicated by the 'C' label.

10 How would an administrator configure a static route for use if a primary route failed?
• configure the route with a metric greater than the default value
• configure the route and the router will activate it as needed
• configure the route to activate by using the redistribute static command
• configure the route with an administrative distance greater than the default value

11 Which statements describe RIP? (Choose three.)
• The maximum metric value is 255 hops.
• The maximum metric value is 15 hops.
• Routing updates occur every 30 seconds.
• Routing updates occur every 90 seconds.
• It is a distance vector routing protocol.
• It is a link state routing protocol.

12 A router has routes to several subnets of a classful network in its routing table. A default route is defined on the router but the ip classless command is disabled. If the router receives packets for a subnet that is not in its routing table but is in the same classful network as the other subnets, what will happen to the packets?
• The packets will be forwarded using the default route.
• The packets will be forwarded using a route to one of the other subnets of the classful network.
• A nonreachable message will be returned to the source.
• The packets will be discarded.
• The router will generate a new route to the subnetted network.

13

The administrator of the network depicted in the graphic would like to decrease the network's convergence time. How can this be accomplished?
• disable split horizon on the routers
• increase the update interval on the routers
• change the RIP holddown timer to 96 seconds
• change the RIP holddown timer to 226 seconds

14

If the passive interface command is enabled on the fa0/0 interface of Router E, which statements are true? (Choose two.)
• Router E will send all routing updates via interface fa0/0.
• Router E will ignore all routing updates learned via interface fa0/0.
• Router E will use routing updates learned via interface fa0/0.
• Router E will not send routing updates via interface fa0/0.

15 Which statements describe load balancing when RIP is configured as the routing protocol? (Choose two.)
• A router is allowed to take advantage of multiple best paths to a given destination.
• RIP uses the round robin approach in load balancing.
• RIP load balancing selects a single path to forward all data to the destination even though equal parallel paths exist.
• RIP load balancing is based on bandwidth first and then the hop count.
• Only one path to a destination can be statically assigned or dynamically calculated.

16

The graphic shows a network that is configured to use RIP routing protocol. Router2 detects that the link to Router1 has gone down. It then advertises the network for this link with a hop count metric of 16. Which routing loop prevention mechanism is in effect?
• split horizon
• error condition
• hold-down timer
• route poisoning
• count to infinity

17

Which of the following would be the correct command sequence to enable RIP on Router B for all connected networks?
• RouterB# router rip
RouterB(router)# network 210.36.7.0
RouterB(router)# network 220.17.29.0
RouterB(router)# network 211.168.74.0

• RouterB(config)# router rip
RouterB(config-router)# network 198.16.4.0
RouterB(config-router)# network 211.168.74.0
RouterB(config-router)# network 199.84.32.0

• RouterB(config)# configure router rip
RouterB(config-router)# network 210.36.7.0
RouterB(config-router)# network 199.84.32.0
RouterB(config-router)# network 211.168.74.0

• RouterB(config)# router rip
RouterB(config-router)# network 198.16.4.0
RouterB(config-router)# network 210.36.7.0
RouterB(config-router)# network 211.168.74.0

• RouterB(config)# router rip
RouterB(config-router)# network 198.16.4.0
RouterB(config-router)# network 210.36.7.0
RouterB(config-router)# network 220.17.29.0

18 When a routing table update is received by a router in a distance vector network, which of the following occurs?
• The hop count metrics for the enclosed routes are incremented.
• The update is forwarded to the gateway router for verification.
• Path entries are checked for routing loops.
• The hop count metrics for the enclosed routes are decremented.
• Static routes are updated with the new information.

19 The following line was displayed in the output of the show ip route command:
192.168.3.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.2.2, 00:00:30, Serial0/0
What is the administrative distance of the enabled routing protocol?
• 2
• 30
• 100
• 120

20 When does RIP send routing table updates? (Choose two.)
• periodically, every 30 seconds
• periodically, every 60 seconds
• periodically, every 90 seconds
• if optionally configured, when topology changes occur (triggered-update)

21 Which of the following can exist in a distance vector network that has not converged? (Choose three.)
• routing loops
• inconsistent traffic forwarding
• no traffic forwarding until system converges
• inconsistent routing table entries
• routing table updates sent to wrong destinations

22 What happens to a static route entry in a routing table when the outgoing interface is not available?
• The route is removed from the table.
• The router polls neighbors for a replacement route.
• The route remains in the table because it was defined as static.
• The router redirects the static route to compensate for the loss of the next hop device.

CCNA 2 - Module 6 Exam Answers

2008-04-09T07:58:00.003+07:00

1 What can be concluded about the routing process on a router if the commands router rip and network 192.5.5.0 have been issued? (Choose three.)
• A distance vector routing protocol was used.
• A link-state routing protocol was used.
• Routing updates will broadcast every 30 seconds.
• Routing updates will broadcast every 90 seconds.
• Hop count is the metric used for route selection.
• Bandwidth, load, delay, and reliability are the metrics used for route selection

2 Which two protocols use an addressing scheme to direct user traffic? (Choose two.)
• IP
• EIGRP
• IPX
• OSPF
• RIP

3 What are some of the advantages of using a link-state routing protocol instead of a distance vector routing protocol? (Choose two.)
• The topology database eliminates the need for a routing table.
• Frequent periodic updates are sent to minimize the number of incorrect routes in the topological database.
• Routers have direct knowledge of all links in the network and how they are connected.
• After the inital LSA flooding, they generally require less bandwidth to communicate changes in a topology.
• Link-state protocols require less router processor power than distance vector protocols.

4 If dynamic routing is not configured on a router, how do routing table updates occur?
• Link state advertisements are sent from other routers.
• Updates are made to the routing table by the administrator.
• Best path information is communicated by network hosts.
• The routing table is updated by neighboring routers.

5 Why is fast convergence desirable in networks that use dynamic routing protocols?
• Routers will not allow packets to be forwarded until the network has converged.
• Hosts are unable to access their gateway until the network has converged.
• Routers may make incorrect forwarding decisions until the network has converged.
• Routers will not allow configuration changes to be made until the network has converged.

6 What is the purpose of a routing protocol?
• It is used to build and maintain ARP tables.
• It provides a method for segmenting and reassembling data packets.
• It allows an administrator to devise an addressing scheme for the network.
• It allows a router to share information about known networks with other routers.
• It provides a procedure for encoding and decoding data into bits for packet forwarding.

7 Which are the primary functions used by a router when forwarding data?(Choose two.)
• data encryption
• error notification
• packet switching
• address identification
• path determination
• packet validation

8 How does a router learn about routes to a network? (Choose three.)
• Information is gathered from its own configuration regarding directly connected networks.
• Switches forward destination address information to each router.
• Hosts communicate destination network information to each router.
• Other routers forward information about known networks.
• Routes are entered manually by a network administrator.
• Routes are learned from information gathered from ARP tables.

9 Which type of address does a router use to make routing decisions?
• source IP address
• source MAC address
• destination IP address
• destination MAC address

10 Describe the switching function that occurs in a router.
• allows the router to make forwarding decisions based on Layer 2 addressing
• uses network addressing to select the best route and interface to forward data
• accepts a packet on one interface and forwards it to a second interface
• enables the router to select the most appropriate interface for forwarding a packet

11 Select the statements that describe link-state routing processes? (Choose three.)
• Each router develops its own map of the entire network.
• Routers send triggered updates when changes in the network occur.
• Link-state routing protocols place a higher load on router resources during the routing protocol initialization.
• Link-state protocols are more prone to routing loops than distance vector routing protocols.
• Networks using link-state routing protocols are slower to reach convergence after changes have occurred than those using distance vector protocols.

12 Why is it necessary to specify a list of networks when configuring an interior routing protocol?
• to tell the router how to reach those networks
• to tell the router which attached networks participate in routing updates
• to tell the router which set of metrics to use for the attached networks
• to tell the router which routing protocol to use

13

Assuming that the network shown in the graphic is converged and dynamic routing is enabled, which of the following conditions will cause a modification to the Orlando routing table? (Choose two.)
• The device connecting the S0 interface of the Tampa router to the serial link loses power.
• A network administrator shuts down the Orlando router E0 interface.
• A DCHP server connected to the Tampa E1 network loses power.
• The IP address of a workstation on the Orlando E0 network is reassigned.
• A host on the Orlando E1 network transmits data to a server on the Tampa E1 network.
• A Telnet connection to the Orlando router fails.

14 All routers at a medium sized company have been upgraded. During the upgrade, the network administrator determined that a more advanced routing protocol using a combination of both distance vector and link state features should be implemented. Which protocol should be selected?
• RIP
• BGP
• OSPF
• EIGRP

15 Which category of routing algorithms discovers and maintains a topological map of the entire internetwork?
• static
• Bellman-Ford
• exterior gateway
• Internetwork Packet Exchange
• distance vector
• link-state

16 Which is an exterior routing protocol commonly used between ISPs?
• RIP
• BGP
• OSPF
• EIGRP

17 Which of the following statements are true regarding the command ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.1? (Choose three.)
• This command is used to set up a static route.
• This command is used to set up a default route.
• This command is entered from global configuration mode.
• All packets intended for network 172.16.1.0 will be sent to gateway 172.16.2.1.
• All packets intended for network 172.16.2.1 will be sent to gateway 172.16.1.0.

18

Referring to the diagram, which commands will enable hosts on the Idaho E0 network to reach hosts on the E0 network of the Montana router? (Choose two.)
• Montana(config)# ip route 172.31.5.0 255.255.255.0 172.31.5.1
• Montana(config)# ip route 172.31.3.0 255.255.255.0 172.31.4.1
• Idaho(config)# ip route 172.31.5.0 255.255.255.0 172.31.4.1
• Idaho(config)# ip route 172.31.5.0 255.255.255.0 172.31.4.2
• Idaho(config)# ip route 172.31.5.1 255.255.255.0 172.31.4.1

19

Which of the following are valid static IP routes? (Choose three.)
• RouterB(config)# ip route 192.168.5.0 255.255.255.0 S1
• RouterC(config)# ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 S1
• RouterA(config)# ip route 192.168.3.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.2.2
• RouterB(config)# ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.2.2
• RouterC(config)# ip route 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.4.1
• RouterA(config)# ip route 192.168.4.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.2.1

20 Given the command, RouterC(config)# ip route 197.5.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.10.1.1, what does the address 192.10.1.1 represent?
• the source host
• the next hop router
• the outbound interface
• the destination network

21 Which of the following conditions must be met in order for a network to have converged?
• The routers in the network are operating with dynamic routing protocols.
• The routers in the network are operating with compatible versions of IOS.
• The routers in the network are operating with the same routing tables.
• The routers in the network are operating with consistent routing knowledge.

22 Which two statements describe autonomous systems? (Choose two.)
• Interior gateway protocols are used between autonomous systems.
• Exterior gateway protocols are used between autonomous systems.
• An autonomous system may be under the control of multiple organizations.
• An autonomous system is identified by a 16 bit number assigned by ARIN.
• The autonomous system is identified in the network portion of the IP address.

CCNA 2 - Module 5 Exam Answers

2008-04-09T07:58:00.001+07:00

1 Which command will display the source of the system boot image?
• Router# show version
• Router# show config-register
• Router# show start-up config
• Router# show running-config
• Router# show flash

2 Routers have different types of memory. Choose the answer that describes flash memory.
• provides working storage
• stores a fully functional IOS image
• stores the startup configuration file
• initializes the code used to boot the router

3 Routers have different types of memory. Choose the answer that describes NVRAM.
• provides working storage
• stores a fully functional IOS image
• stores the startup configuration file
• initializes the code that is used to boot the router

4 Which command will backup configuration files from RAM to NVRAM or a TFTP server?
• backup
• copy
• telnet
• move

5 Which two items below are required by routers in order for them to perform their basic operations? (Choose two.)
• a tftp server
• a configuration file
• a configuration register file
• an operating system file
• a DNS table

6 An IOS image can be copied into flash from a TFTP server. Which of the following statements are true regarding this process? (Choose three.)
• A series of "!'s" are displayed as the image is downloaded successfully to flash.
• The copy tftp flash:filename ip address command is used to copy the IOS from the server to flash.
• After the new flash image is downloaded, it is verified.
• A series of "e's" are displayed as the current IOS image is erased from flash.
• Flash must be cleared with the erase command prior to beginning the download process.

7 Which part of the configuration register indicates the location of the IOS?
• the bootstrap
• the boot field
• the IOS locator
• the system image loader

8 Which of the following can be configured as a source for the IOS image by using the boot system command? (Choose two.)
• TFTP server
• HTTP server
• Telnet server
• Flash memory
• NVRAM memory

9 Which command is used to change the order in which the router looks for system bootstrap information?
• config-image
• config-system
• config-register
• config-bootfield
• config system bootstrap

10 Which command will copy an IOS image from a TFTP server to a router?
• Router# copy tftp flash
• Router# copy flash tftp
• Router(config)# copy tftp flash
• Router(config)# copy flash tftp

11 What command can be used in ROM monitor mode to run the IOS image in flash?
• rommon1> config-register 0x2102
• rommon1> boot flash:filename
• rommon1> xmodem:filename
• rommon1> boot system flash:filename
• rommon1> reload system flash:

12 The Cisco IOS image naming convention allows identification of different versions and capabilities of the IOS. What information can be gained from the filename c2600-d-mz.121-4? (Choose two.)
• The "mz" in the filename represents the special capabilities and features of the IOS.
• The file is uncompressed and requires 2.6 MB of RAM to run.
• The software is version 12.1, 4th revision.
• The file is downloadable and 121.4MB in size.
• The IOS is for the Cisco 2600 series hardware platform.

13 Where does a router look for boot system statements?
• ROM
• RAM
• NVRAM
• Flash

14 What does a configuration register setting of 0x2102 indicate on a router?
• It tells the router to locate and load the IOS from NVRAM.
• It tells the router to locate and load the IOS from FLASH.
• It tells the router to bypass the configuration in NVRAM.
• It tells the router to look in the startup configuration for boot system commands.

15 If a router cannot find a valid configuration file during the startup sequence, what will occur?
• The startup sequence will reset.
• The router will prompt the user for a response to enter setup mode.
• The startup sequence will halt until a valid configuration file is acquired.
• The router will generate a default configuration file based on the last valid configuration.
• The router will monitor local traffic to determine routing protocol configuration requirements.

16 If the configuration register instructs a router to look for configuration information in NVRAM and no boot system commands exist there, from where will the router next attempt to boot the IOS?
• RAMR
• ROM
• FLASH
• EPROM
• ROMMON

17 If boot system commands have been configured, which of the following could happen if a router fails to obtain an IOS image from the primary sources during bootup?
• The router will load a subset of a full IOS version from system ROM.
• The router will attempt to reboot two times before failing.
• The router will load the last good IOS image from NVRAM.
• The administrator will be prompted to load a valid IOS image.

18 The router has been configured with a valid configuration file. Which of the following could be a cause for a router not booting normally? (Choose two.)
• The flash image is corrupt.
• A console cable is disconnected.
• The flash image is located in NVRAM.
• The startup configuration file is incomplete.
• The router encountered a hardware error.

19 Which of the following are steps in saving a router configuration file to a TFTP server? (Choose three.)
• Enter configuration mode.
• Enter the IP address to the TFTP server.
• Use the copy running-config tftp command.
• Use the copy tftp running-config command.
• Name the configuration file or accept the default name.

CCNA 2 - Module 4 Exam Answers

2008-04-09T07:57:00.003+07:00

1 A network administrator was called away from the terminal while using Telnet to monitor a remote router. The Telnet session was left connected. If the default Telnet configuration is used, what will the administrator find upon returning 15 minutes later?
• The Telnet session entered a "sleep" state and will resume when the spacebar is pressed.
• The Telnet session remained connected and is on the same screen it was left on.
• The Telnet session suspended itself and will resume when the Enter key is pressed.
• The Telnet session terminated itself after 10 minutes of inactivity.
• The Telnet session remained active but now requires the password to be entered again.

2 What is the main use of Telnet?
• transfer of data between end users
• verification of simple connectivity
• routing of data packets
• remote connection to network devices

3

Which of the following is true regarding CDP and the graphic shown?
• CDP running on Router D will gather information about routers A, B, C, and E.
• By default, Router A will receive CDP advertisements from routers B and C.
• If routers D and E are running different routing protocols, they will not exchange CDP information.
• Router E can use CDP to identify the IOS running on Router B.

4 Which of the following are displayed by the Router# show cdp neighbors command? (Choose three.)
• load
• platform
• reliability
• holdtime
• local interface

5 To obtain CDP information from a Cisco router that is not directly connected to the administrator's console, what must happen?
• The source router must send TLV blocks to the remote router.
• The administrator can Telnet to a Cisco device that is connected to the remote router.
• The administrator needs to issue the Router# show cdp all to view the entire network CDP advertisements.
• The administrator must transmit TTL packets to the remote device and wait for a response.

6 What is the purpose of the cdp timer command?
• specifies the hold time to be sent in the CDP update packet
• resets the traffic counters back to zero
• specifies how often the Cisco IOS software sends CDP updates
• deletes and resets the CDP table of information about neighbors

7 An administrator is attempting to enable CDP on the interface of a Cisco router. After issuing the command Router(config-if)# cdp enable, the router responds with an error stating that CDP is not active. What might be the problem?
• The cdp enable command must be issued from the global mode prompt.
• The administrator needed to issue the command Router(config-if)# cdp run.
• CDP has not been configured globally.
• The administrator did not manually enter the CDP neighbors into the CDP table.

8

The traceroute command was used to trace the path between routers A and D. What would an output display of three asterisks (***) indicate?
• The command was issued from the wrong prompt.
• Each datagram was successfully sent.
• One of the routers is unreachable.
• There are three hops between source and destination.

9

Pings between Atlanta and Dallas are successful. If a hostname table or DNS connection is not available, which command will successfully establish a remote connection from Atlanta to Dallas via Telnet?
• Atlanta> connect Dallas
• Atlanta> 197.72.3.2
• Atlanta# 206.157.85.1
• Atlanta# telnet Dallas

10 How many Telnet sessions can take place simultaneously on a router running a standard edition of the IOS?
• 4
• 5
• 8
• 10

11 Why would an administrator use the Telnet application when troubleshooting a network? (Choose three.)
• It can be used to verify the operation of application layer software between the source and destination.
• Telnet can use the ICMP protocol to verify a hardware connection and network layer address.
• It is the most complete testing mechanism available.
• Remote networks may be accessed via a Telnet session for troubleshooting.
• Time to Live values are used by Telnet to identify a failure of device between source and destination.

12 For which three network layer protocols does CDP provide information? (Choose three.)
• IP
• RIP
• SNMP
• AppleTalk
• IPX
• EIGRP

13

If the network administrator establishes a telnet session from Workstation 2 to GAD and then from GAD to BHM, what occurs if the session with BHM is suspended and the Enter key is pressed?
• The GAD session will be resumed.
• The BHM session will be resumed.
• The GAD session will be terminated.
• The BHM session will be terminated.

14 Transmitting type length values (TLVs) inside advertisements is a process used by CDP to provide information about neighboring devices. What information is displayed by these TLVs? (Choose three.)
• interface information of the connected device
• all networks connected to the neighboring device
• name of the connected device
• routing protocol used on the neighboring device
• holdtime for advertisements

15

Which command will produce the output shown in the graphic?
• show cdp
• show cdp neighbors
• show cdp neighbors detail
• show cdp detail
• show cdp traffic

16 What key sequence is used to suspend a Telnet session on a remote router?
• Ctrl-Shift-S
• Ctrl-Shift-6
• Ctrl-Shift-6, then x
• Ctrl-Alt-S
• Ctrl-Alt-6
• Ctrl-Alt-6, then x

17 What command enables CDP on the interface of a router?
• Router(config-if)# cdp enable
• Router(config-if)# cdp run
• Router(config-if)# cdp start
• Router(config-if)# cdp config

18 How can a network administrator logged in to RTA gather information about the Cisco devices that are directly connected to its neighbor, RTB?
• Use the show cdp neighbors detail command on RTA to view information about every device on the entire internetwork.
• Use ping to determine the status of RTB, then issue the show cdp neighbors detail command.
• Use Telnet to connect to RTB, then issue the show cdp neighbors command.
• Use traceroute to establish the pathway to RTB, then issue the show cdp neighbors command.

CCNA 2 - Module 3 Exam Answers

2008-04-09T07:57:00.001+07:00

1. Why is it important to create standards for network consistency? (Choose three.)
• reduces network complexity
• increases unplanned downtime
• limits unplanned downtime
• increases bandwidth by regulating networking performance
• limits events that may impact network performance

2. Select the recommended locations to save a running-config file. (Choose three.)
• all network hosts
• network server
• floppy disk
• TFTP server
• server that is not on the network

3. Router names are associated with IP addresses. What is the name of the table that is created by this association?
• IP table
• SAP table
• ARP table
• MAC table
• HOST table
• RARP table

4. Which commands display information about the IOS or configuration files stored in router memory? (Choose three.)
• Router# show ram
• Router# show flash
• Router# show hosts
• Router# show history
• Router# show version
• Router# show startup-config

5.

The serial connection shown in the graphic needs to be configured. Which configuration commands must be made on the Sydney router to establish connectivity with the Melbourne site? (Choose three.)
• Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.2 255.255.255.0
• Sydney(config-if)# no shutdown
• Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.1 255.255.255.224
• Sydney(config-if)# clock rate 56000
• Sydney(config-if)# ip host Melbourne 201.100.53.2

6. What are the default settings for a serial interface? (Choose three.)
• DTE
• DCE
• shutdown
• no IP address
• clock rate 56000
• encapsulation ARPA

7. A network administrator wants to assure that any password that permits access to the privileged EXEC mode is not shown in plain text in the configuration files. Which commands will accomplish this task? (Choose two.)
• Router(config)#enable cisco secret
• Router(config)#enable cisco
• Router(config)#service password-encryption
• Router(config)#enable secret cisco
• Router(config)#encrypt-all cisco
• Router(config)#service encryption-password

8. What will be the response from the router after the command, "router(config)# hostname portsmouth" is entered?
• portsmouth#
• portsmouth(config)#
• invalid input detected
router(config-host)#
• hostname = portsmouth
portsmouth#
• ? command not recognized
router(config)#

9. Select the correct sequence of commands that will configure "Engineering LAN" as the interface description on the Ethernet0 interface.
• Router# configure terminal
Router(config)# interface e0 description Engineering LAN

• Router# configure terminal
Router(config)# interface e0
Router(config-if)# description Engineering LAN

• Router# configure terminal
Router(config)# interface e0
Router(config-if)# interface description Engineering LAN

• Router# configure terminal
Router(config)# description Engineering LAN

10. Select the commands that will store the current configuration file to a network TFTP server? (Choose two.)
• Router# copy run tftp
• Router# copy tftp run
• Router# copy running-config tftp
• Router# copy tftp running-config
• Router(config)# copy running-config tftp
• Router(config)# copy tftp running-config

11. Passwords can be used to restrict access to all or parts of the Cisco IOS. Select the modes and interfaces that can be protected with passwords. (Choose three.)
• VTY interface
• console interface
• Ethernet interface
• secret EXEC mode
• privileged EXEC mode
• router configuration mode

12. What is the default state of the interfaces on a router?
• up, line protocol down
• down, line protocol down
• adminstratively down, line protocol down
• up, line protocol up

13. Which command turns on a router interface?
• Router(config-if)# enable
• Router(config-if)# no down
• Router(config-if)# s0 active
• Router(config-if)# interface up
• Router(config-if)# no shutdown

14. A telnet session can be established when using the IP address of a router but not the name of the router. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the problem?
• an incorrect host table entry
• an incorrect ARP table entry
• an incorrect routing table entry
• an incorrect protocol configured
• an incorrect subnet mask

15. Select the interface descriptions that provide the most appropriate information. (Choose two.)
• circuit number
• host IP address
• telnet password
• number of hops between routers
• purpose and location of the interface

16. Select the commands necessary to remove any existing configuration on a router. (Choose two.)
delete flash
• erase startup-config
• erase running-config
• restart
• reload
• delete NVRAM

17. An IP network is to be added to a router Ethernet interface. What steps must be performed to configure this interface to allow connectivity to the hosts on this LAN? (Choose two.)
• Enter the command no shutdown.
• A password must be set on the interface.
• The interface DCE clock rate must be set.
• The interface must be configured for virtual terminal access.
• The interface must be configured with an IP address and subnet mask.
• The router must be put in setup mode in order for the interface to be configured.

18. Which command sequence will permit access to all five router virtual terminal lines with a password of cisco?

• Router(config-line)#config telnet
Router(config-line)# line vty 0 5
Router(config-line)# password cisco

• Router(config)# line vty 0 4
Router(config)# password cisco

• Router(config)# line vty 0 4
Router(config-line)# password cisco
Router(config-line)# login

• Router(config-line)# config telnet
Router(config-line)# password cisco
Router(config-line)# sessions 0 4

19. Which statements are true regarding the recommended use of login banners? (Choose two.)
• They should be used to display information regarding system changes or maintenance.
• They should be used to display warnings to unauthorized users.
• They should be used to display welcome messages prior to login.
• They should be seen only by system administrators.
• They should provide confirmation of incoming IP addresses.

20. Which are valid router prompts? (Choose three.)
• Router(privileged)#
• Router(config)#
• Router(command)#
• Router(config-router)#
• Router(config-if)#
• Router(exec)#

21. What is the effect of the command ip host HQ 192.1.1.1?
• permits a ping to 192.1.1.1 with the command ping HQ
• assigns the description HQ to the interface with the ip address 192.1.1.1
• renames the router as HQ
• defines a static route to the host 192.1.1.1
• configures the remote device HQ with the ip address of 192.1.1.1

22. What must be configured to establish a serial link between two routers that are directly connected?
• a clock rate on the DTE interface
• a no clock rate command on the DTE interface
• no configuration is required
• a clock rate on the DCE interface

CCNA 2 - Module 2 Exam Answers

2008-04-09T07:56:00.003+07:00

1. Cisco IOS software is separated into two levels as a security feature. What are those two levels? (Choose two.)
• global
• privileged
• local
• user
• interface

2. When the router output is being viewed through a terminal program, which statements are true regarding the --More-- prompt at the bottom of the router display? (Choose two.)
• Press the Spacebar to display the next line.
• Press the Spacebar to view the next screen.
• Press the PgDn key to view the next screen.
• Press the Enter key to display the next line.
• Press the Enter key to view the next screen.

3. Which command takes precedence if the commands enable password and enable secret are both configured on a router?
• enable password
• enable secret
• Neither. They are both enabled.
• Neither. They cancel each other out.

4. What baud rate needs to be configured on terminal emulation software to allow a connection to the console port of a router?
• 2400
• 4800
• 9600
• 14200
• 38400

5. What information about the router and its startup process can be gathered from the output of the show version command? (Choose three.)
• the last restart method
• the command buffer contents
• the amount of NVRAM and FLASH used
• the configuration register settings
• the location from where the IOS loaded

6. Which keystroke is used to move to the beginning of a command line?
• Ctrl-A
• Ctrl-B
• Esc-A
• Esc-B
• Ctrl-C
• Ctrl-Z

7. What does the command sh? return as output if issued at the Router# prompt?
• all show commands allowed in privileged mode
• all commands beginning with the letters sh
• an incomplete command error message
• an invalid command error message

8. Which tasks can be accomplished by using the command history feature? (Choose two.)
• View a list of commands entered in a previous session.
• Recall up to 15 command lines by default.
• Set the command history buffer size.
• Recall previously entered commands.
• Save command lines in a log file for future reference.

9. What information does the name of the IOS file provide to the network administrator? (Choose three.)
• the amount of NVRAM required to run the image
• he hardware platform the image runs on
• the various software platforms the image can run on
• special features and capabilities of the image
• the bandwidth supported by the IOS
• where the image executes from and if it has been compressed

10. Which of the following is the correct flow of routines for a router startup?
• load bootstrap, load IOS, apply configuration
• load bootstrap, apply configuration, load IOS
• load IOS, load bootstrap, apply configuration, check hardware
• check hardware, apply configuration, load bootstrap, load IOS

11. Which tasks can be performed in the ROM monitor mode? (Choose two.)
• recover from system failures
• create startup configuration files
• recover from lost passwords
• configure IP addresses on all router interfaces
• perform high level diagnostics

12. Which of the following statements concerning router interface modes are correct? (Choose three.)
• User EXEC mode provides commands to monitor router operation.
• Privileged EXEC mode only provides commands to change or configure router operation.
• Password protected configuration modes can be accessed from either user EXEC or privileged EXEC modes.
• On a router with the name Core1, the prompt indicating privileged EXEC mode is Core1#.
• The command to enter privileged EXEC mode is Router# enable.
• A username and password may be required to enter privileged EXEC mode.

13. Under what conditions does the router enter setup mode? (Choose three.)
• immediately after issuing the command Router#erase start
• after issuing the command Router#setup
• during the initial configuration of a router
• after deleting the backup configuration and reloading the router
• after deleting the running configuration

14. A network administrator needs to configure a router. Which of the following connection methods requires network functionality to be accessible?
• console
• AUX
• Telnet
• modem

15. After the active IOS image has been loaded into RAM from flash memory, which commands could be used to display the file name of the active IOS? (Choose two.
• Router# show IOS
• Router# show flash
• Router# show nvram
• Router# show version
• Router# show startup-config
• Router# show running-config

16. What is the default sequence for loading the configuration file?
• NVRAM, FLASH, ROM
• FLASH, TFTP,CONSOLE
• NVRAM, TFTP, CONSOLE
• FLASH, TFTP, ROM

17. Which connection method can be used to perform the initial configuration of a router?
• use a serial connection of a computer connected to the console port of a router
• telnet to the router through a serial port
• use a vty port through the Ethernet interface
• use a modem connected to the AUX port of the router

18. Which keystrokes can be used to return to the privileged mode from the interface configuration mode?
• Ctrl-P
• Ctrl-Shift-6, then X
• Ctrl-Z
• Esc

19.

Which of the following identifies the correct items needed to initially configure a router?
• 1) DB-9-to-RJ-45 on the PC's serial port
2) a straight through cable
3) the router's console port

• 1) PC's Ethernet port
2) a crossover cable
3) the router's Ethernet port

• 1) DB-9-to-RJ-45 on the PC's serial port
2) a rollover cable
3) the router's Ethernet port

• 1) PC's Ethernet port
2) a rollover cable
3) the router's console port

• 1) DB-9-to-RJ-45 on the PC's serial port
2) a rollover cable
3) the router's console port

• 1) PC's Ethernet port
2) a rollover cable
3) the router's Ethernet port

CCNA 2 - Module 1 Exam Answers

2008-04-09T07:56:00.001+07:00

1. Which of the following descriptions are true regarding the management connections on a Cisco router? (Choose three.)
• They are non-network connections.
• They are used to connect the router to the rest of the production network.
• They are synchronous serial ports.
• They are used for initial router configuration.
• They are asynchronous serial ports.
• They are accessed using their assigned IP address.

2. The console port can be used for which of the following? (Choose three.)
• debugging
• password recovery
• routing data between networks
• troubleshooting
• connecting one router to another

3. Which of the following describes the function of a WAN?
• connects peripherals in a single location
• connects multiple networks in a single building
• provides connectivity on a LAN
• provides connectivity over a large geographic area

4. An internetwork must include which of the following? (Choose three.)
• switching
• static addressing
• IETF standardization
• dynamic or static routing
• consistent end-to-end addressing

5. ABC Company just purchased three new routers to start their company network. Which items are needed to establish a terminal session between a PC and the router for the initial configuration? (Choose three.)
• straight-through cable
• terminal emulation software
• rollover cable
• RJ-45 to DB-9 connector
• V.35 cable

6.

Terminal emulation software, such as HyperTerminal, can be used to configure a router. Which of the following HyperTerminal options shown in the graphic are correctly set to allow configuration of a Cisco router? (Choose three.)
• bits per second
• data bits
• parity
• stop bits
• flow control

7. Which of the following devices are used in the construction of a WAN? (Choose three.)
• hubs
• routers
• communication servers
• transceivers
• modems
• multi-port repeaters

8. Which of the following are functions of RAM? (Choose three.)
• contains startup configuration file
• stores routing table
• holds fast switching cache
• retains contents when power is removed
• stores running configuration file

9. Why is a console connection to a router or switch preferred when troubleshooting? (Choose two.)
• can be accessed remotely
• does not depend on network services
• displays startup and error messages by default
• does not require special components

10. Which basic components do a router and a standard desktop PC have in common? (Choose three.)
• CPU
• hard drive
• input/output interfaces
• keyboard
• monitor
• system bus

11. During the initial configuration of a 2600 series Cisco router, which cable is required for connecting a PC to the console port?
• twisted
• crossover
• rollover
• straight

12. A router is composed of many internal components. Which of the following components stores a copy of the router's configuration file?
• metal-oxide memory
• read only memory
• flash memory
• non-volatile random access memory

13. What contains the instructions that a router uses to control the flow of traffic through its interfaces?
• packet configuration
• configuration files
• flash memory
• internal components

14. Several Ethernet hosts on a LAN need the gateway services of a Cisco 2500 series router. Which of the following would be needed to physically connect a router to all of the hosts on the LAN? (Choose two.)
• a crossover cable between the transceiver on a router and a switch
• crossover cables between a switch and hosts on a LAN
• a straight-through cable between the auxiliary port on a router and a switch
• a rollover cable between the console port on a router and a switch
• straight-through cables between a switch and hosts on a LAN
• a straight-through cable between the transceiver on a router and a switch

15. Which router component holds the configuration file when power is lost?
• volatile random access memory
• read only memory
• non-volatile random access memory
• flash memory

16. Which of the following layers of the OSI model are incorporated in WAN standards? (Choose two.)
• physical layer
• application layer
• transport layer
• data link layer
• session layer

17. Which of the following are true regarding router interfaces? (Choose three.)
• provide temporary memory for the router configuration files
• connect the router to the network for packet entry and exit
• can be on the motherboard or a separate module
• hold the IOS image
• connect the router to LANs and WANs

18. Which of the following tasks can be accomplished through a management connection on a router? (Choose three.)
• troubleshooting problems
• monitoring the system
• capturing LAN data packets
• configuring the router
• routing data packets

19. What do routers use to select the best path for outgoing data packets?
• ARP tables
• bridging tables
• routing tables
• switching tables

20. Which of the following are functions of NVRAM? (Choose two.)
• stores the routing table
• retains contents when power is removed
• stores the startup configuration file
• contains the running configuration file
• stores the ARP table

21. Select the statements that correctly describe flash memory in a 2600 series router? (Choose two.)
• holds the startup configuration by default
• can be upgraded with single in-line memory modules
• stores Cisco IOS software images
• stores routing table information by default
• maintains the only copy of an IOS image after the router is booted

CCNA 1 - Module 11 Exam Answers

2008-01-01T22:33:00.000+07:00

Take Assessment - Module 11 Exam - (Version 3.1)

1 .Which port numbers are commonly assigned for FTP use? (Choose two.)
• 19
• 20
• 21
• 22

2 Which application layer protocol allows network devices to exchange management information?
• SMTP
• SNMP
• FTP
• TFTP
• EIGRP

3 FTP provides a reliable, connection-oriented service for transferring of files. Which transport layer protocol is used for data transfer when this service is being used?
• TFTP
• TCP
• DNS
• IP
• UDP

4 TCP is referred to as connection-oriented. What does this mean?
• TCP uses only LAN connections.
• TCP requires devices to be directly connected.
• TCP negotiates a session for data transfer between hosts.
• TCP reassembles the data steams in the order that it is received.

5 What three pieces of information does the transport layer use to manage the communication of separate data streams between hosts? (Choose three.)
• port numbers
• checksum values
• authentication keys
• sequence numbers
• encryption algorithms
• acknowledgment numbers

6 What does the http portion of the URL http://www.cisco.com/edu/ communicate to a web browser?
• The web browser needs to locate the www server.
• The address is located on a site whose name is http.
• The web browser is notified as to which protocol to use.
• The http portion represents the type of web browser that needs to be used.

7 When the receiving workstation detects an error in the data it has received, it does not acknowledge receipt of the data. The source workstation retransmits the unacknowledged data. Which layer of the OSI model supports this process of retransmission?
• network
• application
• session
• transport

8 What are the features of the User Datagram Protocol (UDP). (Choose three.)
• no guaranteed delivery of datagrams
• connection-oriented
• provides reliable full-duplex data transmission
• reliability provided by the application layer
• connectionless
• utilizes sliding windowing techniques

9 Which Application layer protocol is widely used to support resolving host names to IP addresses?
• FTP
• SMTP
• SNMP
• DNS
• HTTP
• WWW

10 What is the purpose of TCP/UDP port numbers?
• indicate the beginning of a three-way handshake
• reassemble the segments into the correct order
• identify the number of data packets that may be sent without acknowledgment
• track different conversations crossing the network at the same time

11 If an application uses a protocol that exchanges data without using windowing or flow control and must rely on higher layer protocols for reliability, which protocol and transfer methods are being used?
• UDP, connection-oriented
• UDP, connectionless
• TCP, connection-oriented
• TCP, connectionless

12 Which protocol is used to transfer files from computer to computer but is considered connectionless?
• FTP
• TFTP
• SNMP
• TCP
• DHCP

13 Which layer of the OSI model can provide a connection-oriented, reliable data transfer between two hosts?
• Application
• Presentation
• Session
• Transport

14 Which of the following are primary duties of the OSI transport layer? (Choose two.)
• path determination
• end-to-end connectivity
• flow control
• security control
• data representation
• encryption of data

15 Which protocol is used by e-mail servers to communicate with each other?
• FTP
• HTTP
• TFTP
• SMTP
• POP
• SNMP

CCNA 1 - Module 10 Exam Answers

2008-01-01T08:47:00.000+07:00

Take Assessment - Module 10 Exam - (Version 3.1)

1. At which layer of the OSI model does the device reside that is functioning as the default gateway for hosts on a network?
• Layer 1
• Layer 2
• Layer 3
• Layer 4
• Layer 5
• Layer 7

2. A company is planning to subnet its network for a maximum of 27 hosts. Which subnet mask would provide the needed hosts and leave the fewest unused addresses in each subnet?
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.255.192
• 255.255.255.224
• 255.255.255.240
• 255.255.255.248

3.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is planning the addressing scheme for the LAN using 172.25.14.0/26. The hosts are to be assigned addresses 172.25.14.1 - 172.25.14.25. The LAN interface of the router is to be configured using 172.25.14.63 as the IP address. What would describe this addressing scheme?
• The LAN is being addressed properly.
• The subnet that is being assigned is not a usable subnet address.
• The router LAN interface is being assigned a broadcast address.
• The subnet mask does not allow enough host addresses in a single subnet.

4.

Refer to the exhibit. A student in the Cisco network class has designed a small office network to enable hosts to access the Internet. What recommendation should the teacher provide to the student in regards to the network design?
• Replace the Layer 2 switch with a hub.
• Replace the Layer 2 switch with a router.
• Replace the Layer 2 switch with a bridge.
• Replace the Layer 2 switch with a transceiver.

5. Which type of routing allows routers to adapt to network changes?
• static routes
• dynamic routing
• only default routes
• No routing is necessary.

6.

Refer to the exhibit. Host A pings host B. When R4 accepts the ping into the Ethernet interface, what two pieces of header information are included? (Choose two.)
• source IP address: 192.168.10.129
• source IP address: BBBB.3333.5677
• source MAC address: 5555.AAAA.6666
• destination IP address: 192.168.10.33
• destination IP address: 192.168.10.134
• destination MAC address: 9999.DADC.1234

7. Given a host with the IP address 172.32.65.13 and a default subnet mask, to which network does the host belong?
• 172.32.65.0
• 172.32.65.32
• 172.32.0.0
• 172.32.32.0

8. What header address information does a router change in the information it receives from an attached Ethernet interface before information is transmitted out another interface?
• only the Layer 2 source address
• only the Layer 2 destination address
• only the Layer 3 source address
• only the Layer 3 destination address
• the Layer 2 source and destination address
• the Layer 3 source and destination address

9.

Host A is connected to the LAN, but it cannot connect to the Internet. The host configuration is shown in the exhibit. What are the two problems with this configuration? (Choose two.)
• The host subnet mask is incorrect.
• The host is not configured for subnetting.
• The default gateway is a network address.
• The default gateway is on a different network than the host.
• The host IP address is on a different network from the Serial interface of the router.

10.

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has assigned the internetwork of LBMISS an address range of 192.168.10.0. This address range has been subnetted using a /29 mask. In order to accommodate a new building, the technician has decided to use the fifth subnet for configuring the new network. By company policies, the router interface is always assigned the first usable host address and the workgroup server is given the last usable host address. Which configuration should be entered into the IP server properties to get connectivity to the network through the router?
• IP address: 192.168.10.38 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 Default gateway: 92.168.10.39
• IP address: 192.168.10.38 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 Default gateway: 92.168.10.33
• IP address: 192.168.10.38 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 Default gateway: 92.168.10.33
• IP address: 192.168.10.39 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 Default gateway: 92.168.10.31
• IP address: 192.168.10.254 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.0 Default gateway: 192.168.10.1

11. How does a router decide where the contents of a received frame should be forwarded?
• by matching destination IP addresses with networks in the routing table
• by matching the destination IP address with IP addresses listed in the ARP table
• by matching the destination MAC address with MAC addresses listed in the CAM table
• by forwarding the frame to all interfaces except the interface on which the frame was received

12.

Refer to the exhibit. A newly hired technician is testing the connectivity of all hosts by issuing a ping command. The technician notices that a default gateway is not configured on all the hosts, but all hosts have connectivity between hosts, a fact which seems to confuse the technician. How would you explain the connectivity to the technician?
• The hosts are detecting the default gateway configured on the hub.
• The hosts are all in one LAN, so default gateway information is not needed.
• The hosts in the network only require that one host has a gateway configured.
• The hosts in the network would only need a gateway if a switch replaces the hub.
• The hosts are using broadcast to reach each other since no gateway is configured.

13. What do switches and routers use to make forwarding decisions?
• Switches and routers both use IP addresses.
• Switches and routers use both MAC and IP addresses.
• Switches use IP addresses. Routers use MAC addresses.
• Switches use MAC addresses. Routers use IP addresses.
• Switches use MAC and IP addresses. Routers use IP addresses.

14.

Refer to the exhibit. Host A is connected to the LAN, but it cannot get access to any resources on the Internet. The configuration of the host is shown in the exhibit. What could be the cause of the problem?
• The host subnet mask is incorrect.
• The default gateway is a network address.
• The default gateway is a broadcast address.
• The default gateway is on a different subnet from the host.

15. How does subnetting provide some level of security in a network?
• The number of switches must increase.
• The collisions prevent the copying of data.
• The broadcasts are contained within a subnet.
• The number of host IP addresses is increased.

16.

Refer to the exhibit. After host 2 is connected to the switch on the LAN, host 2 is unable to communicate with host 1. What is the cause of this problem?
• The subnet mask of host 2 is incorrect.
• Host 1 and host 2 are on different networks.
• The switch needs an IP address that is not configured.
• The router LAN interface and host 1 are on different networks.
• The IP address of host 1 is on a different network than is the LAN interface of the router.

17. What is the purpose of a subnet mask in a network?
• A subnet mask is not necessary when a default gateway is specified.
• A subnet mask is required only when bits are borrowed on a network.
• A subnet mask is used to determine in which subnet an IP address belongs.
• A subnet mask is used to separate the 48-bit address into the OUI and the vendor serial number.

18. Refer to the exhibit. A technician is planning an addressing scheme for a branch office as shown in the exhibit. What is the status of the intended network?
• The configuration will work as planned.
• The subnetwork mask of host A is incorrect.
• The default gateway of host A is a network address.
• The addresses on the router LAN interfaces are on the same subnetwork.
• The IP address of host A is on a different subnetwork than the subnetwork that the Ethernet router interface is on.

19. What is the primary purpose of a routing protocol?
• to propagate broadcast messages
• to map IP addresses to MAC addresses
• to switch traffic to all available interfaces
• sharing network information between routers

20. Which statements describe Layer 2 and Layer 3 packet address changes as the packet traverses from router to router? (Choose two.)
• Layer 3 header is removed and replaced at every Layer 3 device.
• Layer 2 and Layer 3 addresses do not change when the packet traverse.
• Layer 3 source and destination addresses do not change when the packet traverse.
• Layer 2 frame header and trailer are removed and replaced at every Layer 3 device.
• Layer 2 source and destination addresses do not change when the packet travels.

21. Which type of routing uses manual entry of information and does not scale well in large internetworks?
• interior
• exterior
• static
• dynamic

22. Company XYZ uses a network address of 192.168.4.0. It uses the mask of 255.255.255.224 to create subnets. What is the maximum number of usable hosts in each subnet?
• 6
• 14
• 30
• 62

23. A company is using a Class B IP addressing scheme and expects to need as many as 100 networks. What is the correct subnet mask to use with the network configuration?
• 255.255.0.0
• 255.255.240.0
• 255.255.254.0
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.255.128
• 255.255.255.192

24. Which device would add security to a network by not forwarding broadcasts?
• hub
• router
• switch
• bridge
• repeater

25. An IP network address has been subnetted so that every subnetwork has 14 usable host IP addresses. What is the appropriate subnet mask for the newly created subnetworks?
• 255.255.255.128
• 255.255.255.224
• 255.255.255.240
• 255.255.255.248
• 255.255.255.252

CCNA 1 - Module 9/10 Exam Answers

2008-01-01T08:44:00.000+07:00

Take Assessment - Module 9/10 Exam - (Version 3.1)

1. What is the primary responsibility of the transport layer?
• allows access to the network media
• provides data representation and encoding
• selects paths through the network for data to travel
• defines end-to-end connectivity between host applications

2. Why is IP considered a best-effort protocol?
• IP detects lost packets.
• IP validates the content of the packets.
• IP does not provide acknowledgment of the data delivery.
• IP reorders the packet as they arrive at the destination host.

3. Which two statements correctly describe the IP address 127.0.0.1? (Choose two.)
• It belongs to the Class A range of addresses.
• It belongs to the Class B range of addresses.
• It belongs to the Class C range of addresses.
• It is reserved for loopback testing.
• It is reserved for multicast group testing.
• It is reserved for unicast testing.

4.

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are correct in reference to the output shown? (Choose two.)
• The LAN segment is subnetted to allow 254 subnets.
• The DNS server for this host is on the same subnet as the host.
• The host automatically obtained the IP addresses 192.168.1.100.
• The host received the IP address from the router on the local LAN segment.
• The host is assigned an address of 00-50-8D-F1-EA-8D by the administrator.

5. Which three addresses are considered to be private addresses? (Choose three.)
• 10.45.09.23
• 15.87.234.87
• 172.32.45.90
• 172.17.78.98
• 192.169.89.56
• 192.168.45.23

6. What is the purpose of a DHCP server on a network?
• to resolve MAC addresses to IP addresses
• to resolve IP addresses to MAC addresses
• to resolve host names to IP addresses
• to assign IP addresses dynamically to hosts
• to assign a MAC address to a host

7.

Refer to the exhibit. The small office LAN shown in the exhibit may eventually be connected to the Internet. According to Cisco best practice, which IP network addresses should be used?
• 12.0.0.0
• 172.0.0.0
• 172.168.0.0
• 192.32.17.0
• 192.168.67.0
• 225.1.5.0

8.

Refer to the exhibit. Which devices are recommended to have the IP addresses manually configured?
• PC1 and PC2
• all servers
• only PC2 Laptop
• all hosts and all servers

9.

Refer to the exhibit. Based on the information shown, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
• An ARP request must be used to obtain an address that is placed in the ARP table.
• Frames from other hosts in the network to this host will use a destination address of 00-06-25-25-6e-5d.
• The only remote locations that can be reached from this host are 192.168.1.97 and 192.168.1.254.
• If a packet is sent to a network device other than 192.168.1.97 and 192.168.1.254, an ARP request must be used.
• If the computer with the IP address of 192.168.1.94 sends a packet to the device with the IP address 192.168.1.97, no ARP request is required.

10. Which TCP/IP model layer supports both LAN and WAN technologies?
• network access layer
• internet layer
• transport layer
• application layer

11. Which subnet mask would be assigned to the network address of 192.168.32.0 to provide 254 useable host addresses per subnetwork?
• 255.255.0.0
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.254.0
• 255.255.248.0

12.

Refer to the exhibit. Host A pings host B. When R4 accepts the ping into the Ethernet interface, what two pieces of header information are included? (Choose two.)
• source IP address: 192.168.10.129
• source IP address: BBBB.3333.5677
• source MAC address: 5555.AAAA.6666
• destination IP address: 192.168.10.33
• destination IP address: 192.168.10.134
• destination MAC address: 9999.DADC.1234

13. What header address information does a router change in the information it receives from an attached Ethernet interface before information is transmitted out another interface?
• only the Layer 2 source address
• only the Layer 2 destination address
• only the Layer 3 source address
• only the Layer 3 destination address
• the Layer 2 source and destination address
• the Layer 3 source and destination address

14.

Host A is connected to the LAN, but it cannot connect to the Internet. The host configuration is shown in the exhibit. What are the two problems with this configuration? (Choose two.)
• The host subnet mask is incorrect.
• The host is not configured for subnetting.
• The default gateway is a network address.
• The default gateway is on a different network than the host.
• The host IP address is on a different network from the Serial interface of the router.

15. An IP network address has been subnetted so that every subnetwork has 14 usable host IP addresses. What is the appropriate subnet mask for the newly created subnetworks?
• 255.255.255.128
• 255.255.255.224
• 255.255.255.240
• 255.255.255.248
• 255.255.255.252

16. A company is using a Class B IP addressing scheme and expects to need as many as 100 networks. What is the correct subnet mask to use with the network configuration?
• 255.255.0.0
• 255.255.240.0
• 255.255.254.0
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.255.128
• 255.255.255.192

17.

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has assigned the internetwork of LBMISS an address range of 192.168.10.0. This address range has been subnetted using a /29 mask. In order to accommodate a new building, the technician has decided to use the fifth subnet for configuring the new network. By company policies, the router interface is always assigned the first usable host address and the workgroup server is given the last usable host address. Which configuration should be entered into the IP server properties to get connectivity to the network through the router?
• IP address: 192.168.10.38 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 Default gateway: 192.168.10.39
• IP address: 192.168.10.38 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 Default gateway: 192.168.10.33
• IP address: 192.168.10.38 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 Default gateway: 192.168.10.33
• IP address: 192.168.10.39 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 Default gateway: 192.168.10.31
• IP address: 192.168.10.254 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.0 Default gateway: 192.168.10.1

18.

Refer to the exhibit. A technician is planning an addressing scheme for a branch office as shown in the exhibit. What is the status of the intended network?
• The configuration will work as planned.
• The subnetwork mask of host A is incorrect.
• The default gateway of host A is a network address.
• The addresses on the router LAN interfaces are on the same subnetwork.
• The IP address of host A is on a different subnetwork than the subnetwork that the Ethernet router interface is on.

19.

Refer to the exhibit. After host 2 is connected to the switch on the LAN, host 2 is unable to communicate with host 1. What is the cause of this problem?
• The subnet mask of host 2 is incorrect.
• Host 1 and host 2 are on different networks.
• The switch needs an IP address that is not configured.
• The router LAN interface and host 1 are on different networks.
• The IP address of host 1 is on a different network than is the LAN interface of the router.

20.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is planning the addressing scheme for the LAN using 172.25.14.0/26. The hosts are to be assigned addresses 172.25.14.1 - 172.25.14.25. The LAN interface of the router is to be configured using 172.25.14.63 as the IP address. What would describe this addressing scheme?
• The LAN is being addressed properly.
• The subnet that is being assigned is not a usable subnet address.
• The router LAN interface is being assigned a broadcast address.
• The subnet mask does not allow enough host addresses in a single subnet.

21. Which type of routing allows routers to adapt to network changes?
• static routes
• dynamic routing
• only default routes
• No routing is necessary.

22. How does a router decide where the contents of a received frame should be forwarded?
• by matching destination IP addresses with networks in the routing table
• by matching the destination IP address with IP addresses listed in the ARP table
• by matching the destination MAC address with MAC addresses listed in the CAM table
• by forwarding the frame to all interfaces except the interface on which the frame was received

23. What do switches and routers use to make forwarding decisions?
• Switches and routers both use IP addresses.
• Switches and routers use both MAC and IP addresses.
• Switches use IP addresses. Routers use MAC addresses.
• Switches use MAC addresses. Routers use IP addresses.
• Switches use MAC and IP addresses. Routers use IP addresses.

24.

Refer to the exhibit. A newly hired technician is testing the connectivity of all hosts by issuing a ping command. The technician notices that a default gateway is not configured on all the hosts, but all hosts have connectivity between hosts, a fact which seems to confuse the technician. How would you explain the connectivity to the technician?
• The hosts are detecting the default gateway configured on the hub.
• The hosts are all in one LAN, so default gateway information is not needed.
• The hosts in the network only require that one host has a gateway configured.
• The hosts in the network would only need a gateway if a switch replaces the hub.
• The hosts are using broadcast to reach each other since no gateway is configured.

25. Given a host with the IP address 172.32.65.13 and a default subnet mask, to which network does the host belong?
• 172.32.65.0
• 172.32.65.32
• 172.32.0.0
• 172.32.32.0

CCNA 1 - Module 9 Exam Answers

2008-01-01T08:42:00.000+07:00

Take Assessment - Module 9 Exam - (Version 3.1)

1. What are two facts about how ARP resolves an IP address to a MAC address? (Choose two.)
• The originating host dynamically issues an arp -a command to obtain the destination MAC address.
• The originating host broadcasts an ARP request packet and each host in a local network receives this packet.
• The originating host dynamically issues an icmp echo request command to obtain the destination MAC address.
• The host with the specified destination IP address sends an ARP reply packet containing its MAC address back to the originating host.
• The host with the specified destination IP address sends an icmp echo reply packet to the originating host with its MAC address.

2. Which TCP/IP model layer supports both LAN and WAN technologies?
• network access layer
• internet layer
• transport layer
• application layer

3. What is the primary responsibility of the transport layer?
• allows access to the network media
• provides data representation and encoding
• selects paths through the network for data to travel
• defines end-to-end connectivity between host applications

4. What is the network broadcast address for a Class C address of 192.168.32.0 with the default subnet mask?
• 192.168.0.0
• 192.168.0.255
• 192.168.32.0
• 192.168.32.254
• 192.168.32.255

5. Which two statements correctly describe the IP address 127.0.0.1? (Choose two.)
• It belongs to the Class A range of addresses.
• It belongs to the Class B range of addresses.
• It belongs to the Class C range of addresses.
• It is reserved for loopback testing.
• It is reserved for multicast group testing.
• It is reserved for unicast testing.

6.

Refer to the exhibit. The small office LAN shown in the exhibit may eventually be connected to the Internet. According to Cisco best practice, which IP network addresses should be used?
• 12.0.0.0
• 172.0.0.0
• 172.168.0.0
• 192.32.17.0
• 192.168.67.0
• 225.1.5.0

7. Why is IP considered a best-effort protocol?
• IP detects lost packets.
• IP validates the content of the packets.
• IP does not provide acknowledgment of the data delivery.
• IP reorders the packet as they arrive at the destination host.

8. Which three addresses are considered to be private addresses? (Choose three.)
• 10.45.09.23
• 15.87.234.87
• 172.32.45.90
• 172.17.78.98
• 192.169.89.56
• 192.168.45.23

9.

Refer to the exhibit. Based on the information shown, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
• An ARP request must be used to obtain an address that is placed in the ARP table.
• Frames from other hosts in the network to this host will use a destination address of 00-06-25-25-6e-5d.
• The only remote locations that can be reached from this host are 192.168.1.97 and 192.168.1.254.
• If a packet is sent to a network device other than 192.168.1.97 and 192.168.1.254, an ARP request must be used.
• If the computer with the IP address of 192.168.1.94 sends a packet to the device with the IP address 192.168.1.97, no ARP request is required.

10.

Refer to the exhibit. Which devices are recommended to have the IP addresses manually configured?
• PC1 and PC2
• all servers
• only PC2 Laptop
• all hosts and all servers

11. Why were private IP addresses developed?
• to permit dynamic assignment of IP addresses
• to permit the duplication of public IP addresses
• to minimize the utilization of reserved IP addresses
• to permit public IP addresses to be used in private networks
• to address the issue of not enough available public IP addresses

12. Which subnet mask would be assigned to the network address of 192.168.32.0 to provide 254 useable host addresses per subnetwork?
• 255.255.0.0
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.254.0
• 255.255.248.0

13. When a host has an empty ARP cache, what is the next step the host will take to find the destination MAC address of a remote host?
• sends an ARP request as a unicast to the server
• sends an ARP request as a unicast to the destination
• sends an ARP request as a broadcast to all hosts in the local network
• sends an ARP request as a unicast to the default gateway

14.

Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the Obtain an IP address automatically option shown in the exhibit?
• to configure the computer to use ARP
• to configure the computer to use DHCP
• to configure the computer to use a routing protocol
• to configure the computer with a statically assigned IP address

15. How many usable hosts are available given a Class C IP address with the default subnet mask?
• 254
• 255
• 256
• 510
• 511
• 512

16. Which statement accurately describes public IP addresses?
• Public addresses cannot be used within a private network.
• Public IP addresses must be unique across the entire Internet.
• Public addresses can be duplicated only within a local network.
• Public IP addresses are only required to be unique within the local network.
• Network administrators are free to select any public addresses to use for network devices that access the Internet.

17. Which IPv4 class of addresses provides the most networks?
• Class A
• Class B
• Class C
• Class D
• Class E

18. Which IPv4 class provides the highest number of host addresses per network?
• Class A
• Class B
• Class C
• Class D
• Class E

19. What is the purpose of a DHCP server on a network?
• to resolve MAC addresses to IP addresses
• to resolve IP addresses to MAC addresses
• to resolve host names to IP addresses
• to assign IP addresses dynamically to hosts
• to assign a MAC address to a host

20.

CCNA 1 - Module 8 Exam Answers

2008-01-01T08:38:00.000+07:00

1Take Assessment - Module 8 Exam - (Version 3.1).

What is characteristic of the operation of a Layer 2 switch?
• forwards data based on logical addressing
• duplicates the electrical signal of each frame to every port
• learns the port assigned to a host by examining the destination MAC address
• uses the destination MAC address to determine the specific interface to forward a frame

2. Two newly hired technicians are discussing the implementation of a new LAN. One technician proposes installing a hub. The other technician advises installing a switch. Which statements are true about the differences between a hub and a switch? (Choose two.)
• A hub operates at Layer 2 of the OSI model.
• A hub reduces the number of collisions on a LAN.
• A hub works at a higher OSI model layer than a switch.
• A switch provides more throughput to hosts on a LAN
• A switch provides a collision-free environment on a LAN.
• The number of collisions on a LAN are the same whether a hub or a switch is used.

3.

Refer to the exhibit. Forty-eight workstations are connected to a hub. The users are able to connect to the network, but access is very slow. An entry-level technician replaces the 10 Mbps hub with 100 Mbps hub but the problem still exists. What is the most economical way to correct the problem?
• Replace the hub with a switch.
• Replace the hub with a router.
• Replace the hub with a 1 Gbps hub.
• Replace the hub with a 10 Mbps fiber hub.

4.

Exhibited is a portion of ABC Company internetwork. Which of the connections can be full duplex?
• segments 1 and 2
• segment 2
• segments 3 and 4
• segments 2, 3, and 4
• segments 1, 2, 3, and 4

5.

Refer to the exhibit. The switch and the hub have default configurations, and the switch has built its CAM table. Which of the hosts will receive the data when workstation A sends a unicast packet to workstation C?
• workstation C
• workstations B and C
• workstations B, C, and the E0 interface of the router
• workstations B, C, D, E, F, and the E0 interface of the router

6. An administrator would like to connect ten workstations on a 192.168.0.0/24 network. The device selected by the administrator must allow connectivity between hosts without sharing bandwidth. Which device would be appropriate?
• hub
• router
• switch
• repeater

7. Which networking devices use the MAC address to make forwarding decisions? (Choose two.)
• NIC
• bridge
• hub
• switch
• repeater

8. Which devices are primarily used to extend cable segments within a collision domain by regenerating the data signals? (Choose two.)
switch
• repeater
• router
• bridge
• hub

9. Which devices will create multiple collision domains in an Ethernet network? (Choose two.)
• NIC
• hub
• switch
• router
repeater

10.

Refer to the exhibit. How many broadcast domains exist in classroom 240?
• 1
• 2
• 5
• 12
• 13
• 15

11. A PC receives a frame. Which situation will cause the NIC on the receiving host to pass the frame contents up the OSI layers to be processed by the PC?
• The frame is a runt frame.
• The destination MAC address of the frame is FFFF.FFFF.FFFF.
• The transmitting host generated a jam signal during the frame transmission.
• The recalculated checksum for the frame does not match the FCS on the frame.

12. A network administrator has a multi-floor LAN to monitor and maintain. Through careful monitoring, the administrator has noticed a large amount of broadcast traffic slowing the network. Which device would you use to best solve this problem?
• bridge
• hub
• router
• transceiver

13. What will a bridge do if it receives a frame with a MAC address that is not within the table?
• discard frame
• ignore frame
• send frame to appropriate port
• send frame to all ports except source port

14. Which networking device reduces the size of both collision domains and broadcast domains?
• hub
• Layer 2 switch
• router
• bridge
• repeater

15. What is used to prevent Layer 2 switching loops?
• bridging
• segmentation
• Address Resolution Protocol
• Spanning-Tree Protocol

CCNA 1 - Module 7 Exam Answers

2007-12-31T19:08:00.000+07:00

Take Assessment - Module 7 Exam - (Version 3.1)

1. Which Ethernet standard does the IEEE 802.3 standard recommend for backbone installations?
• 10BASE-T
• 100BASE-T
• 100BASE-FX
• 1000BASE-LX

2. Which statements describe Gigabit Ethernet technology? (Choose two.)
• operates at 100 Mbps
• typically used for backbone cabling
• requires shielded twisted-pair cabling
• can be implemented over copper and fiber
• primarily used between workstations option

3. Which of the following are Fast Ethernet technologies? (Choose two.)
• 100BASE-5
• 100BASE2
• 1000BASE-F
• 100BASE-FX
• 100BASE-TX

4. To make sure timing limitations are not violated when implementing a 10 Mbps Ethernet network involving hubs or repeaters, a technician should adhere to which rule?
• the 4-5-3 rule
• the 6-4-2 rule
• the 3-4-5 rule
• the 5-4-3 rule

5. At which OSI layer do the differences between standard Ethernet, Fast Ethernet and Gigabit Ethernet occur?
• physical layer
• data link layer
• network layer
• transport layer

6. How does 1000BASE-T use the UTP wire pairs to accomplish transmission?
• two pairs are used to transmit and two pairs are used to receive
• one pair is used to transmit, one pair is used to receive, one pair is used for clocking, and one pair is used for error correction
• all four pairs are used in parallel by both hosts to transmit and receive simultaneously
• two pairs of wires are used as in 10BASE-T and 100BASE-TX

7. What RJ-45 pins are unused when transmitting and receiving data in an Ethernet 100BASE-T Category 5 UTP cable? (Choose two.)
• 1 and 2
• 3 and 6
• 4 and 5
• 7 and 8

8. What is the maximum distance that 10BASE-T will transmit data before signal attenuation affects the data delivery?
• 100 meters
• 185 meters
• 300 meters
• 500 meters

9. Which media types can be used in an implementation of a 10BASE-T network? (Choose three.)
• Category 5 UTP
• Category 5e UTP
• Category 3 UTP
• coaxial cable
• multi-mode fiber
• single mode fiber

10. Which of the following Ethernet technologies are considered legacy Ethernet? (Choose three.)
• 10BASE2
• 10BASE5
• 10BASE-T
• 100BASE-T
• 100BASE-FX
• 100BASE-TX

CCNA 1 - Module 6/7 Exam Answers

2007-12-31T19:07:00.000+07:00

Take Assessment - Module 6/7 Exam - (Version 3.1)

1. Which of the following are specified by IEEE standards as sublayers of the OSI data link layer? (Choose two.)
• Logical Link Control
• Logical Layer Control
• Media Access Control
• Logical Link Communication
• Media Access Communication
• Physical Access Communication

2.

Refer to the exhibit. Host A is communicating with host F. What happens to a frame sent from host A to host F as it travels over the Ethernet segments?
• The frame format is modified as it passes through each switch.
• The frame format remains the same across each Ethernet segment.
• The frame format is modified as the media speed changed at switch B and switch E.
• The frame format is modified as the media material changes between copper and fiber at switch C and switch D.

3. In which two layers of the OSI model does Ethernet function? (Choose two.)
• application
• session
• transport
• network
• data link
• physical

4. Where does the MAC address originate?
• DHCP server database
• configured by the administrator
• burned into ROM on the NIC card
• network configuration on the computer
• included in the creation of the processor chip

5. At what layer of the OSI model does a MAC address reside?
• 1
• 2
• 3
• 4
• 7

6. A router has an Ethernet, Token Ring, serial, and ISDN interface. Which interfaces will have a MAC address?
• serial and ISDN interfaces
• Ethernet and Token Ring interfaces
• Ethernet and ISDN interfaces
• Token Ring and serial interfaces

7. Which two devices can provide full-duplex Ethernet connections? (Choose two.)
• hub
• modem
• repeater
• NIC
• Layer 2 switch

8.

Refer to the exhibit. The small office network shown in the exhibit consists of four computers connected through a hub. Which configuration would cause collisions and errors on the network?
• autonegotiation
• FastEthernet
• peer-to-peer shared resources
• administratively configured full duplex

9.

Refer to the exhibit. The switch and workstation are administratively configured for full-duplex operation. Which statement accurately reflects the operation of this link?
• No collisions will occur on this link.
• Only one of the devices can transmit at a time.
• The switch will have priority for transmitting data.
• The devices will default back to half duplex if excessive collisions occur.

10. What are three functions of a NIC in a PC? (Choose three.)
• A NIC connects the PC to the network media.
• A NIC detects collisions on the Ethernet segment.
• A NIC checks the formatting of data before it is transmitted.
• A NIC passes the contents of selected frames to the upper OSI layers.
• A NIC acknowledges and retransmits data that was not received properly.
• A NIC discards frames when the destination IP address does not match the local host.

11. In an Ethernet LAN, how does the NIC know when it can transmit data?
• An Ethernet NIC transmits data as soon as the frame is received.
• An Ethernet NIC transmits data as soon as the NIC receives a token.
• An Ethernet NIC transmits data when it senses a collision.
• An Ethernet NIC transmits data after listening for the absence of a signal on the media.

12.

Refer to the exhibit. All hosts are in listen mode. Host 1 and Host 4 both transmit data at the same time. How do the hosts respond on the network? (Choose two.)
• Hosts 1 and 4 may be operating full duplex so no collision will exist.
• The hub will block the port connected to Host 4 to prevent a collision.
• After the end of the jam signal, Hosts 1, 2, 3, and 4 invoke a backoff algorithm.
• When the four hosts detect the collision, Hosts 1, 2, 3, and 4 generate a jam signal.
• Hosts 1 and 4 are assigned shorter backoff values to provide them priority to access the media.
• If a host has data to transmit after the backoff period of that host, the host checks to determine if the line is idle, before transmitting.

13. Which statement describes how CSMA/CD on an Ethernet segment manages the retransmission of frames after a collision occurs?
• The first device to detect the collision has the priority for retransmission.
• The device with the lowest MAC address determines the retransmission priority.
• The devices on the network segment hold an election for priority to retransmit data
• The devices transmitting when the collision occurs DO NOT have priority for retransmission.

14. What is the maximum distance that 10BASE-T will transmit data before signal attenuation affects the data delivery?
• 100 meters
• 185 meters
• 300 meters
• 500 meters

15. Which of the following are Fast Ethernet technologies? (Choose two.)
• 100BASE-5
• 100BASE2
• 1000BASE-F
• 100BASE-FX
• 100BASE-TX

16. At which OSI layer do the differences between standard Ethernet, Fast Ethernet and Gigabit Ethernet occur?
• physical layer
• data link layer
• network layer
• transport layer

17. How does 1000BASE-T use the UTP wire pairs to accomplish transmission?
• two pairs are used to transmit and two pairs are used to receive
• one pair is used to transmit, one pair is used to receive, one pair is used for clocking, and one pair is used for error correction
• all four pairs are used in parallel by both hosts to transmit and receive simultaneously
• two pairs of wires are used as in 10BASE-T and 100BASE-TX

18. Which statements describe Gigabit Ethernet technology? (Choose two.)
• operates at 100 Mbps
• typically used for backbone cabling
• requires shielded twisted-pair cabling
• can be implemented over copper and fiber
• primarily used between workstations option

19. Which media types can be used in an implementation of a 10BASE-T network? (Choose three.)
• Category 5 UTP
• Category 5e UTP
• Category 3 UTP
• coaxial cable
• multi-mode fiber
• single mode fiber

20. Which of the following Ethernet technologies are considered legacy Ethernet? (Choose three.)
• 10BASE2
• 10BASE5
• 10BASE-T
• 100BASE-T
• 100BASE-FX
• 100BASE-TX

CCNA 1 - Module 6 Exam Answers

2007-12-31T19:05:00.000+07:00

Take Assessment - Module 6 Exam - (Version 3.1)

1.

Refer to the exhibit. Host A is communicating with host F. What happens to a frame sent from host A to host F as it travels over the Ethernet segments?
• The frame format is modified as it passes through each switch.
• The frame format remains the same across each Ethernet segment.
• The frame format is modified as the media speed changed at switch B and switch E.
• The frame format is modified as the media material changes between copper and fiber at switch C and switch D.

2. How many hexadecimal digits are in a MAC address?
• 2
• 8
• 12
•16
• 32

3. What are three functions of a NIC in a PC? (Choose three.)
• A NIC connects the PC to the network media.
• A NIC detects collisions on the Ethernet segment.
• A NIC checks the formatting of data before it is transmitted.
• A NIC passes the contents of selected frames to the upper OSI layers.
• A NIC acknowledges and retransmits data that was not received properly.
• A NIC discards frames when the destination IP address does not match the local host.

4. At what layer of the OSI model does a MAC address reside?
• 1
• 2
• 3
• 4
• 7

5. A router has an Ethernet, Token Ring, serial, and ISDN interface. Which interfaces will have a MAC address?
• serial and ISDN interfaces
• Ethernet and Token Ring interfaces
• Ethernet and ISDN interfaces
• Token Ring and serial interfaces

6. In an Ethernet LAN, how does the NIC know when it can transmit data?
• An Ethernet NIC transmits data as soon as the frame is received.
• An Ethernet NIC transmits data as soon as the NIC receives a token.
• An Ethernet NIC transmits data when it senses a collision.
• An Ethernet NIC transmits data after listening for the absence of a signal on the media.

7. Which characteristics describe carrier sense multiple access collision detect (CSMA/CD)? (Choose three.)
• reliable
• point-to-point
• nondeterministic
• connection-oriented
• collision environment
• first-come, first-served approach

8. Which two devices can provide full-duplex Ethernet connections? (Choose two.)
• hub
• modem
• repeater
• NIC
• Layer 2 switch

9. On a local area network, one workstation can send data on the line while it is receiving data. What type of data transfer does this describe?
• hybrid
• half duplex
• full duplex
• multilink

10.

Refer to the exhibit. The small office network shown in the exhibit consists of four computers connected through a hub. Which configuration would cause collisions and errors on the network?
• autonegotiation
• FastEthernet
• peer-to-peer shared resources
• administratively configured full duplex

11.

Refer to the exhibit. The switch and workstation are administratively configured for full-duplex operation. Which statement accurately reflects the operation of this link?
• No collisions will occur on this link.
• Only one of the devices can transmit at a time.
• The switch will have priority for transmitting data.
• The devices will default back to half duplex if excessive collisions occur.

12.

Refer to the exhibit. All hosts are in listen mode. Host 1 and Host 4 both transmit data at the same time. How do the hosts respond on the network? (Choose two.)
• Hosts 1 and 4 may be operating full duplex so no collision will exist.
• The hub will block the port connected to Host 4 to prevent a collision.
• After the end of the jam signal, Hosts 1, 2, 3, and 4 invoke a backoff algorithm.
• Hosts 1 and 4 are assigned shorter backoff values to provide them priority to access the media.
• If a host has data to transmit after the backoff period of that host, the host checks to determine if the line is idle, before transmitting.

13. When a collision occurs in a network using CSMA/CD, how do hosts with data to transmit respond after the backoff period has expired?
• The hosts return to a listen-before-transmit mode.
• The hosts creating the collision have priority to send data.
• The hosts creating the collision retransmit the last 16 frames.
• The hosts extend their delay period to allow for rapid transmission.

14. Which statement describes how CSMA/CD on an Ethernet segment manages the retransmission of frames after a collision occurs?
• The first device to detect the collision has the priority for retransmission.
• The device with the lowest MAC address determines the retransmission priority.
• The devices on the network segment hold an election for priority to retransmit data
• The devices transmitting when the collision occurs DO NOT have priority for retransmission.

15.

Refer to the exhibit. A technician wants to increase the available bandwidth for the workstation by allowing the switch and the NIC on the workstation to transmit and receive simultaneously. What will permit this?
• CSMA/CD
• full-duplex
• FastEthernet
• crossover cable

16. Why do hosts on an Ethernet segment that experience a collision use a random delay before attempting to transmit a frame?
• A random delay is used to ensure a collision-free link.
• A random delay value for each device is assigned by the manufacturer.
• A standard delay value could not be agreed upon among networking device vendors.
• A random delay helps prevent the stations from experiencing another collision during the transmission.

17. In which two layers of the OSI model does Ethernet function? (Choose two.)
• application
• session
• transport
• network
• data link
• physical

18. Which of the following are specified by IEEE standards as sublayers of the OSI data link layer? (Choose two.)
• Logical Link Control
• Logical Layer Control
• Media Access Control
• Logical Link Communication
• Media Access Communication
• Physical Access Communication

19. Where does the MAC address originate?
• DHCP server database
• configured by the administrator
• burned into ROM on the NIC card
• network configuration on the computer
• included in the creation of the processor chip

CCNA 1 - Module 5 Exam Answers

2007-12-31T19:04:00.000+07:00

Take Assessment - Module 5 Exam - (Version 3.1)

1.

Refer to the exhibit. What is the appropriate cable to use at each of the numbered network connections?
• 1-crossover; 2-straight-through; 3-crossover; 4-straight-through
• 1-straight-through; 2-crossover; 3-straight-through; 4-straight-through
• 1-straight-through; 2-crossover; 3-crossover; 4-straight-through
• 1-rollover; 2-crossover; 3-straight-through; 4-straight-through
• 1-rollover; 2-straight-through; 3-straight-through; 4-straight-through

2. Which two devices are considered OSI Layer 1 devices? (Choose two.)
• hubs
• routers
• bridges
• switches
• repeaters

3. What device is used to connect hosts to an Ethernet LAN and requires a straight-through UTP cable between the hosts and this device?
• NIC
• router
• switch
• server

4. What is the most common type of cabling used in LANs?
• STP
• UTP
• coax
• fiber

5. In which situations would a crossover cable be used to connect devices in a network? (Choose two.)
• switch to PC
• switch to hub
• switch to router
• switch to server
• switch to switch

6.

Refer to the exhibit. How many collision domains exist in the network?
• 1
• 2
• 4
• 7
• 8

7. What type of cable would be used to make the connection between the console port of a router and a workstation?
• crossover
• rollover
• straight-through
• patch

8.

Which function is a unique responsibility of the DCE devices shown in the exhibit?
• transmission of data
• reception of data
• clocking for the synchronous link
• noise cancellation in transmitted data

9. Which address does a bridge use to make filtering and switching decisions?
• source MAC
• source IP
• destination MAC
• destination IP
• network IP address

10. What is characteristic of how a hub operates?
• A hub selectively drops packets that represent potential security risks.
• A hub forwards data out all interfaces except the inbound interface.
• A hub dynamically learns the interfaces to which all devices are attached.
• At start up, a hub queries the devices on all interfaces in order to learn the MAC addresses of the attached devices.
• A hub transmits a frame to a specific interface based on the destination MAC address.

11. Users with systems that are attached to a hub are complaining about poor response time. What device could replace the hub and provide immediate response time improvement?
• router
• switch
• bridge
• repeater

12. Which of the following are benefits of peer-to-peer networks? (Choose three.)
• centralized security
• easy to create
• very scalable
• no centralized equipment required
• centralized administrator not required
• centralized control of assets

13. Which statement is accurate about a WAN link?
• The link transmits data serially.
• The link uses a maximum distance of 100 meters.
• The link uses the same transmission rate as all other WAN links use.
• The link uses the same standardized connector style that is used for all WAN technologies.

14.

Which items in the exhibit are DTE devices?
• A and B
• B and C
• C and D
• A and D
• A, B, C, and D

15. At which layer of the OSI model does the MAC address of a NIC reside?
• physical
• application
• network
• transport
• data link
• session

16.

Refer to the exhibit. A technician measured the lengths of the CAT 5e structured cable runs in the exhibit. How should the technician evaluate the cabling shown in the diagram to the network administrator?
• All cabling to work areas are within specifications.
• Station A and B may experience intermittent problems because the length exceeds the recommended standard.
• Station B may experience intermittent problems because the length exceeds the recommended standard.
• Station C may experience intermittent network connectivity because the length is less than the recommended standard.
• Station A and B will have intermittent problems because the length exceeds the recommended standard.
• Station C will not have network connectivity because the length is less than the recommended standard.

17. Which statement describes a typical use of Gigabit Ethernet?
• to provide high-speed desktop connectivity for average users
• to provide connectivity to low to medium volume applications
• to provide medium volume connectivity to workgroup servers
• to provide high-speed connectivity for backbones and cross connects

18.

The ends of a UTP cable are shown in the exhibit. Which cable configuration is shown?
• crossover
• rollover
• reversed-pair
• straight-through
• split-pair
• console

19.

The ends of a UTP cable are shown in the exhibit. Which cable configuration is shown?
• console
• crossover
• rollover
• reversed-pair
• split-pair
• straight-through

20. Which of the following are benefits of a wireless network? (Choose two.)
• higher data speeds
• better security
• mobility
• less expensive NIC cards
• no need to run cables to hosts

CCNA 1 - Module 4 Exam Answers

2007-12-31T19:02:00.000+07:00

Take Assessment - Module 4 Exam - (Version 3.1)

1. To ensure reliable LAN communications, what should a technician be looking for when attaching connectors to the ends of UTP cable?
• that the white-orange/orange pair is attached first
• That the wire pairs remain twisted as much as possible
• that one end of the shield is properly ground but not the other
• that 50 ohm termination resistors are on both ends

2. Which of the following describes frequency?
• length of each wave
• height of each wave
• number of cycles each second
• amount of time between each wave

3. How are binary ones and zeros represented in fiber optic installations? (Choose two.)
• +5 volts/-5 volts
• 0 volts/5 volts
• light/no light
• high to low electrical transition
• low to high electrical transition
• increasing/decreasing light intensity

4. What is expected when crosstalk is present in networks with higher transmission frequencies? (Choose two.)
• jitter
• increase in crosstalk
• higher signal attenuation
• increases in cancellation effect
• destruction of more of the data signal

5. A small company is experiencing difficulties on its LAN. After performing some tests, a technician has determined that the copper media supporting the LAN is experiencing abnormal attenuation. What are two possible causes of the problem? (Choose two.)
• defective connectors
• excessively long cable lengths
• use of higher grade cabling
• low frequency signals used in the media
• network cable runs isolated from other cables

6. What factors need to be considered to limit the amount of signal attenuation in Ethernet cable runs? (Choose two.)
• type of users
• number of users
• length of cable
• type of electrical equipment
• installation of connectors on the cable

7. What conditions are described when transmission signals from one wire pair affects another wire pair? (Choose two.)
• noise
• resistance mismatch
• jitter
• crosstalk
• attenuation

8. What is a cause of crosstalk in UTP cable?
• cable pairs that are shorted
• cable pairs crossed during termination
• cabling runs installed in separate conduit
• cable pairs that are untwisted because of poor termination of the cable

9. Which of the following are detected by the wire map test? (Choose three.)
• near-end crosstalk (NEXT)
• opens
• propagation delay
• return loss
• reversed-pair faults
• short circuits

10. A company needs to extend the LAN to six separate buildings. To limit the amount of signal attenuation on the LAN media, what type of media would be the best to use between the buildings?
• air (wireless)
• coaxial cable
• fiber
• shielded twisted pair
• unshielded twisted pair

CCNA 1 - Module 3 Exam Answers

2007-12-31T19:00:00.000+07:00

Take Assessment - Module 3 Exam - (Version 3.1)

1. What are two advantages of using UTP cable in a networking environment? (Choose two.)
• is stiffer than STP
• is less expensive than fiber
• is easier to install than coaxial
• provides longer distances than coaxial provides
• is less susceptible to outside noise sources than fiber is

2. What are two advantages of using fiber-optic cabling instead of UTP? (Choose two.)
• lower cost
• easer to install
• allows longer distances
• less effected by external signals
• easier to terminate the cable ends

3. What is the difference between a wireless NIC and an Ethernet NIC?
• The Ethernet NIC operates at 100 Mbps, whereas a wireless NIC operates at 10 Mbps.
• The Ethernet NIC uses a PCI expansion slot, and a wireless NIC cannot use an expansion slot.
• The wireless NIC uses CSMA/CA, whereas a Ethernet NIC uses token passing as an access method.
• The wireless NIC associates to an access point, and an Ethernet NIC attaches to a hub or switch using a cable.
• The Ethernet NIC attaches to a hub or a switch using only fiber cabling, and a wireless NIC attaches to a wireless antenna using air as a network medium.

4. Which wireless standard operates in the 5 GHZ transmission range and is capable of 54 Mbps of data throughput?
• 802.11
• 802.11a
• 802.11b
• 802.11g

5. A company is converting a cabled LAN to a wireless Ethernet LAN. What must be changed on every host on the network?
• No changes are required.
• Each host will require a new IP address.
• Each host will require an appropriate NIC or adapter.
• Each host will require that the operating system be upgraded.

6.

Refer to the exhibit. Which answer correctly identifies the pinout of the UTP cables labeled Cable A, Cable B, and Cable C?
• A=straight, B=rollover, C=crossover
• A=rollover, B=crossover, C=straight
• A=crossover, B=straight, C=straight
• A=crossover, B=straight, C=rollover
• A=straight, B=crossover, C=rollover
• A=rollover, B=straight, C=crossover

7. What factors should be considered when selecting the appropriate cable for connecting a PC to a network? (Choose two.)
• type of system bus
• motherboard model
• distance of cable run
• speed of transmission
• computer manufacturer

8. Which Ethernet implementation requires the signal on the media to be boosted at a maximum distance of 100 meters?
• 10BASE2
• 10BASE5
• 100BASE-T
• 100BASE-FX
• 1000BASE-CX

9. When is a straight-through cable used in a network?
• when configuring a router
• when connecting a host to a host
• when connecting a switch to a router
• when connecting one switch to another switch

10. What type of cable is used to make an Ethernet connection between a host and a LAN switch?
• console
• rollover
• crossover
• straight-through

11. Which of the following are used for data communication signals? (Choose three.)
• light patterns
• electrical voltages
• controlled air pulses
• mixed media impulses
• magnetized fluid wave
• modulated electromagnetic waves

12. What does UTP cable rely on to reduce signal degradation caused by EMI and RFI?
• shielding
• magnetism
• cancellation
• insulation
• properly grounded connections
• RJ-45 connectors

13. Select the characteristics specified by 10BaseT. (Choose three.)
• twisted pair cable
• T style connectors
• baseband transmission
• 10 gigabits per second data rate
• 10 megabits per second data
• decimal encoded data transmission

14.

Refer to the exhibit. What type of cable connects the two routers together without any intermediary device?
• console
• rollover
• crossover
• straight-through

15. Which cable connectors are used to connect a cable from a router's console port to a PC? (Choose two.)
• RJ-11
• RJ-12
• RJ-45
• DB-8
• DB-9
• DB-10

CCNA 1 - Module 2 Exam Answers

2007-12-31T18:34:00.000+07:00

Take Assessment - Module 2 Exam - (Version 3.1)

1. Which layer of the OSI model provides network services to processes in electronic mail and file transfer programs?
• data link
• transport
• network
• application

2. Which of the following are data link layer encapsulation details? (Choose two.)
• A header and trailer are added.
• Data is converted into packets.
• Packets are packaged into frames.
• Frames are divided into segments.
• Packets are changed into bits for Internet travel.

3. Which three features apply to LAN connections? (Choose three.)
• operate using serial interfaces
• make network connection using a hub
• limited to operation over small geographic areas
• provide part-time connectivity to remote services
• typically operate under local administrative control
• provide lower bandwidth services compared to WANs

4. Which layer of the OSI model provides connectivity and path selection between two end systems where routing occurs?
• physical layer
• data link layer
• network layer
• transport layer

5. Which term describes the process of adding headers to data as it moves down OSI layers?
• division
• encoding
• separation
• segmentation
• encapsulation

6. Refer to the following list. Choose the correct order of data encapsulation when a device sends information.
1. segments
2. bits
3. packets
4. data
5. frames
• 1 - 3 - 5 - 4 - 2
• 2 - 1 - 3 - 5 - 4
• 2 - 4 - 3 - 5 - 1
• 4 - 3 - 1 - 2 - 5
• 4 - 1 - 3 - 5 - 2
• 3 - 5 - 1 - 2 - 4

7. The central hub has malfunctioned in the network. As a result, the entire network is down. Which type of physical network topology is implemented?
• bus
• star
• ring
• mesh

8. Which of the following are factors that determine throughput? (Choose two.)
• types of passwords used on servers
• type of Layer 3 protocol used
• network topology
• width of the network cable
• number of users on the network

9. Which best describes the function of the physical layer?
• Defines the electrical and functional specifications for the link between end systems.
• Provides reliable transit of data across a physical link.
• Provides connectivity and path selection between two end systems.
• Concerned with physical addressing, network topology and media access.

10. Which of the following are ways that bandwidth is commonly measured? (Choose three.)
• GHzps
• kbps
• Mbps
• Nbps
• MHzps
• Gbps

11. Which of the following are layers of the TCP/IP model? (Choose three.)
• Application
• Physical
• Internet
• Network Access
• Presentation

12. What is the term used to describe the transport layer protocol data unit?
• bits
• packets
• segments
• frames
• data streams

13. What makes it easier for different networking vendors to design software and hardware that will interoperate?
• OSI model
• proprietary designs
• IP addressing scheme
• standard logical topologies
• standard physical topologies

14.

Refer to the exhibit. Which column shows the correct sequence of OSI model layers?
• A
• B
• C
• D

15. What is one advantage of defining network communication by the seven layers of the OSI model?
• It increases the bandwidth of a network.
• It makes networking easier to learn and understand.
• It eliminates many protocol restrictions.
• It increases the throughput of a network.
• It reduces the need for testing network connectivity.

16. Which two features apply to WAN connections? (Choose two.)
• operate using serial interfaces
• make network connection using a hub
• limited to operation over small geographic areas
• typically operate under local administrative control
• provide lower bandwidth services compared to LANs

17. A switch has failed in the network. As a result, only one segment of the network is down. Which type of physical network topology is implemented?
• bus
• ring
• star
• extended star

18.

Refer to the exhibit. Identify the devices labeled A, B, C, and D in the network physical documentation.
• A=bridge, B=switch, C=router, D=hub
• A=bridge, B=hub, C=router, D=switch
• A=bridge, B=router, C=hub, D=switch
• A=hub, B=bridge, C=router, D=switch

CCNA 1 - Module 1 Exam Answers

2007-12-31T18:31:00.000+07:00

Take Assessment - Module 1 Exam - (Version 3.1)

1. Several computers in the company require new NICs. A technician has located a good price on the Internet for the purchase of these NICs. Before these NICs are purchased and installed, what details must be verified? (Choose three.)
• the MAC address on
• the NICthe size of the RAM on the NIC
• the bandwidth supported by the NIC
• the type of media supported by the NIC
• the type of network architecture supported by the NIC

2. What is the hexadecimal equivalent for the binary number 00100101?
• 15
• 20
• 25
• 30
• 37
• 40

3. Which phrases describe a byte? (Choose two.)
• a single binary digit
• +5 volts of electricity
• the value range 0 to 127
• a grouping of eight binary digits
• a single addressable data storage location

4. Which specialized equipment is used to make a physical connection from a PC to a network?
• router
• RAM
• CD ROM
• network interface card

5. What is the binary equivalent for the decimal number 248?
• 11100000
• 11110000
• 11110100
• 11111000

6. Convert the binary number 01011011 into its hexadecimal equivalent.
Select the correct answer from the list below.
• 5A
• 5b
• 5c
• 5d
• 6b
• 7a

7. What is the binary equivalent for decimal number 149?
• 10010111
• 10010101
• 10011001
• 10010111
• 10101011
• 10101101

8. In an 8 bit binary number, what is the total number of combinations of the eight bits?
• 128
• 254
• 255
• 256
• 512
• 1024

9. Which device connects a computer with a telephone line by providing modulation and demodulation of incoming and outgoing data?
• NIC
• CSU/DSU
• router
• modem
• telco switch

10. What is the binary equivalent for the decimal number 162?
• 10101010
• 10100010
• 10100100
• 10101101
• 10110000
• 10101100

11. Which of the following are popular web browsers? (Choose two.)
• Acrobat
• Internet Explorer
• Macromedia Flash
• Netscape Navigator
• Quicktime
• World Wide Web

12. Convert the Base 10 number 116 into its eight bit binary equivalent. Choose the correct answer from the following list:
• 01111010
• 01110010
• 01110100
• 01110110
• 01110111
• 01010110

13. What is the hexadecimal equivalent for the binary number 10001110?
• 22
• 67
• 142
• AE
• 8E

14. Represented as a decimal number, what is the result of the logical ANDing of binary numbers 00100011 and 11111100?
• 3
• 32
• 35
• 220
• 255

15. Convert the decimal number 231 into its binary equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.
• 11110010
• 11011011
• 11110110
• 11100111
• 11100101
• 11101110

16. What are three conditions that would require a network administrator to install a new NIC? (Choose three.)
• whenever a NIC is damaged
• when there is a need to provide a secondary or backup NIC
• when there is a change from copper media to wireless
• whenever operating system security patches are applied
• whenever the PC has been moved to a different location